First add

datasets/MMLU/prehistory.txt

+Unlike most other early civilizations, Minoan culture shows little evidence of:<n>A.trade.<n>B.warfare.<n>C.the development of a common religion.<n>D.conspicuous consumption by elites.[SEP]D
+The greatest Egyptian pyramids at Giza were built:<n>A.as burial monuments for the pharaoh Khufu, Khufu's son Khafre, and Khufu's grandson Menkaure.<n>B.by slaves who were coerced and worked under the threat of death, as described in the book of Exodus of the Old Testament.<n>C.in the construction frenzy of the 6th dynasty.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]A
+When anatomically modern humans first arrived in the Middle East, who did they encounter?<n>A.Neandertals, the evolutionary descendants of the premodern human inhabitants of Europe and Asia<n>B.Homo erectus, the evolutionary descendants of the premodern human inhabitants of Europe and Asia<n>C.Homo sapiens, who had evolved independently in Asia and arrived there by 200,000 years ago<n>D.All of the above[SEP]A
+The “Lion Man” from Hohlenstein-Stadel cave is an example of:<n>A.mobiliary art.<n>B.long-distance trade of exotic raw materials.<n>C.parietal art.<n>D.a Venus figurine.[SEP]A
+At its peak, the palace at Knossos is thought to have had over _________ rooms.<n>A.100<n>B.500<n>C.1,000<n>D.5,000[SEP]C
+The Hopewell were complex rank societies, but they were not a state. Hopewell culture lacked all of the following elements EXCEPT:<n>A.formal government<n>B.monumental earthworks<n>C.urban centers<n>D.a permanent military[SEP]B
+Markings found on the mud-bricks of Huaca del Sol are probably:<n>A.instructions for the builders written there by the engineers.<n>B.random scratches and not a meaningful script or written language.<n>C.intended to identify the local group that had produced them.<n>D.simple arithmetic performed by carpenters on the building site.[SEP]C
+The 30 upright stones at Stonehenge are called _______; the horizontal stones are _________.<n>A.legumes, sarsens<n>B.lintels, stelae<n>C.sarsens, lintels<n>D.trilithon, tholoi[SEP]C
+The secondarily altricial condition of modern human babies may have been an evolutionary solution, in that:<n>A.the brain size of hominids had not grown for more than a million years, making it difficult for babies to walk.<n>B.it allowed for bipedalism and independence from the mother at an earlier age.<n>C.it allowed for subsequent growth of the brain, since bipedalism had resulted in a narrowed birth canal in the female pelvis.<n>D.it allowed for growth of the brain to nearly adult size prior to birth, since bipedalism had resulted in a wider birth canal in the female pelvis.[SEP]C
+Research on C3 and C4 pathways indicates that changes in plant communities were associated with a transition in the diets of ancient hominids from:<n>A.species focused on grasses to nuts and fruits.<n>B.meat to fruits and vegetables.<n>C.fruits and vegetables to fish.<n>D.nuts and fruits to species more focused on grasses.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is evidence of new uses for plants during the Middle Stone Age?<n>A.the use of seeds as a natural insecticide in Altamira cave in southwestern Europe<n>B.plant materials such as flowers in Aurignacian burials in southern France<n>C.plant material lining the floor of Sibudu Cave in South Africa<n>D.the use of wood in the Gravettian tradition to make spear-throwers and canoes[SEP]C
+That modern Africans do not possess any Neandertal DNA indicates that:<n>A.Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans must have occurred before Neandertals migrated out of Africa.<n>B.Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans occurred after anatomically modern humans migrated out of Africa.<n>C.Neandertals who lived in Africa did not interbreed with anatomically modern humans, but must have followed them when they migrated out of Africa.<n>D.Interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals never occurred.[SEP]B
+Toward the end of the Pleistocene, between 28,000 and 18,000 years ago, worldwide sea level was much lower than present day, resulting in the exposure of a landmass east of Siberia called __________. This period is called the _______.<n>A.Beringia; Late Beringian Period<n>B.Sundaland; McKenzie Maximum<n>C.Beringia; Late Glacial Maximum<n>D.Wallacea; Late Laurentide Period[SEP]C
+Which archaeological method is best for identifying large-scale land modifications?<n>A.test pits<n>B.ground-penetrating radar<n>C.aerial photography<n>D.proton magnetometers[SEP]C
+What designation for a pottery style was eventually applied to an entire cultural complex that moved across the Pacific?<n>A.Clovis<n>B.Nenana Complex<n>C.Lapita<n>D.Micronesian Pottery Tradition[SEP]C
+What is one of the differences between simple foragers and complex foragers?<n>A.Complex foragers employ irrigation technology.<n>B.Complex foragers rely on a wider range of food sources.<n>C.Complex foragers are more highly mobile.<n>D.Complex foragers focus on a few highly productive resources.[SEP]D
+The significance of Frere's discovery was that what he found was located:<n>A.beneath the remains of extinct animals.<n>B.on the surface, above the remains of extinct animals.<n>C.in a region of Africa where no one thought humans had ever lived.<n>D.on top of the ruins of a Medieval castle.[SEP]A
+What is the earliest form of writing in the world and where did it develop?<n>A.cuneiform, in Mesopotamia<n>B.hieroglyphics, in Egypt<n>C.clay-tablets, at Knossos<n>D.runes, at Stonehenge[SEP]A
+A pattern of social integration in which individuals are placed into a hierarchy of social levels is called:<n>A.urbanization.<n>B.a social system.<n>C.social stratification.<n>D.a necropolis.[SEP]C
+The Minoan economy may have been especially vulnerable to natural catastrophe because it relied heavily on:<n>A.agriculture<n>B.maritime trade<n>C.metalworking<n>D.slave labor[SEP]B
+The _______ developed one of the earliest kingdoms in South America, reaching its height at around _________.<n>A.Moche; AD 400<n>B.Wari; AD 100<n>C.Inca; AD 200<n>D.Maya; AD 400[SEP]A
+What is the name of the lithic technology seen in the Arctic and consisting of wedge-shaped cores, micro-blades, bifacial knives, and burins?<n>A.Clovis Complex<n>B.Denali Complex<n>C.Folsom Complex<n>D.Nenana Complex[SEP]B
+Which of the following is used to remove the soil enclosing site materials?<n>A.brushes<n>B.trowels<n>C.dental picks<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+A continuous, projecting ridge of bone above and across the eye orbits is called the:<n>A.sagittal crest.<n>B.supraorbital torus.<n>C.maxilla.<n>D.occipital bone.[SEP]B
+Ancestral Puebloan culture in Chaco Canyon was comprised of:<n>A.around 75 substantial settlements and more than 300 smaller communities.<n>B.more than 500 towns and villages with monumental architecture.<n>C.between 30 and 40 farmsteads and three large pueblos.<n>D.one large city state with more than 300 outlying farmsteads.[SEP]A
+The Yang-shao culture gave way to the Lung-Shan sometime after:<n>A.6,000 B.P.<n>B.5,000 B.P.<n>C.4,000 B.P.<n>D.3,000 B.P.[SEP]B
+The most prominent feature of the food resource base of post-Pleistocene Europe was its:<n>A.dependence on megafauna.<n>B.hunting and gathering.<n>C.dependence on fur-bearing animals.<n>D.diversity.[SEP]D
+Evidence of wild grain harvesting and consumption in Israel dates to as early as<n>A.20,000 B.P.<n>B.12,000 B.P.<n>C.10,000 B.P.<n>D.8,000 B.P.[SEP]A
+Civilization in the Indus Valley was characterized by:<n>A.highly centralized economies.<n>B.carefully planned and designed cities.<n>C.standardized weights and measures.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]D
+According to one theory, the power of Ancestral Pueblo elites emerged when certain groups:<n>A.predicted astronomical events such as eclipses and meteor showers.<n>B.constructed monuments and elaborate multi-storied cliff dwellings.<n>C.stored food surpluses in good years for distribution in bad years.<n>D.incorporated other societies through conquest warfare.[SEP]C
+Teotihuacán came to prominence in the Basin of Mexico after its rival, Cuicuilco,<n>A.was crippled by a volcanic eruption.<n>B.succumbed to a civil war among its ruling families.<n>C.suffered a blight on its crops.<n>D.was flooded by a Gulf Coast hurricane.[SEP]A
+Evidence from northwest coast societies indicates that what is ultimately needed for the development of social complexity is:<n>A.agriculture.<n>B.irrigation technology.<n>C.social stratification.<n>D.a food surplus.[SEP]D
+Which subfield of anthropology aims to better understand the nearest living relatives of humans?<n>A.paleoanthropology<n>B.archaeology<n>C.primatology<n>D.linguistics[SEP]C
+How did Aurignacian technology differ from Mousterian technology?<n>A.Mousterian technology produced more projectile points.<n>B.Mousterian technology produced more usable blade surface.<n>C.Aurignacian technology produced more usable blade surface.<n>D.Aurignacian technology was focused on the production of hand axes.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is evidence of a complex society?<n>A.monumental works<n>B.burials with grave goods<n>C.leisure and a sedentary lifestyle<n>D.all of the above[SEP]A
+The face of Homo erectus was more ________ than modern humans, but less so than Homo habilis.<n>A.altricial<n>B.hairy<n>C.occipital<n>D.prognathous[SEP]D
+Montezuma ruled over millions of people from the _______ capital of _____.<n>A.Maya; Tikal.<n>B.Aztec; Tenochtitlán.<n>C.Teotihuacános; Teotihuacán.<n>D.Zapotec; Monte Albán.[SEP]B
+The belief that all of the characteristics of civilization developed in one place, such as Egypt, and from there spread out to the rest of the world is known as:<n>A.cultural evolution<n>B.migrationism<n>C.diffusionism<n>D.anti-originalism[SEP]C
+When the ratio of brain size to body size is compared, which species has a proportionally larger brain?<n>A.Homo erectus<n>B.premodern Homo sapiens<n>C.Neandertals<n>D.modern Homo sapiens[SEP]D
+The royal graves of the Shang Dynasty consisted of enormous cruciform-shaped tombs, where the deceased kings were buried with:<n>A.jade, bronze, and ceramic artifacts.<n>B.chariots and horses.<n>C.the headless bodies of humans who had been sacrificed.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]D
+The above hominid species discovered in Malapa Cave in South Africa has been classified as:<n>A.Homo habilis<n>B.Australopithecus sediba.<n>C.Homo sapiens.<n>D.Australopithecus robustus[SEP]B
+Ethnographic evidence supports which of the following connections between surplus food and social complexity?<n>A.Only agriculturalists can produce the food surplus necessary for economic inequality.<n>B.Some resource-rich environments allow for the creation of surpluses that can lead to economic inequalities and social complexity.<n>C.Economic inequalities are the foundation of social complexity and entirely dependent on agriculture for the production of surplus food.<n>D.The production of surplus food is not important in the development of economic inequalities or social complexity.[SEP]B
+Which of the following was the greatest advantage of using fire in human evolution?<n>A.Fire offers protection from predators and enemies.<n>B.Fire makes meat more digestible and kills bacteria.<n>C.Fire produces light and heat.<n>D.Fire can be used in warfare and to clear fields.[SEP]B
+Palynology is the study of _________, which allows scientists to reconstruct ______.<n>A.foraminifera; a master sequence of tree rings.<n>B.coprolites; paleopathology and sexual dimorphism.<n>C.pollen; plant communities and climate.<n>D.phytoliths; artificial selection and photosynthesis pathways.[SEP]C
+What was the unifying element of Olmec culture?<n>A.religious iconography<n>B.large armies<n>C.agricultural surpluses<n>D.all of the above[SEP]A
+Which of the following ancient civilizations has a written language that is the furthest from being fully deciphered?<n>A.the Indus Valley<n>B.Egyptian<n>C.Mesopotamian<n>D.Chinese[SEP]A
+The sophisticated stone tool making industry at the Pinnacle Point site in South Africa is evidence of:<n>A.a 250,000-year-old tradition of hand axe production and use.<n>B.a 71,000-year-old complex sequence of microblade production and use.<n>C.an adaptation to hunting in colder environments.<n>D.both a and c.[SEP]B
+Early evidence of complexity in Mayan societies is suggested by the appearance, around 2650 B.P., of:<n>A.finely carved obsidian statuary.<n>B.decorated stepped platforms.<n>C.the introduction of chocolate into the Mesoamerican economy.<n>D.a ritual ball game in which the losers were sacrificed to the gods.[SEP]B
+What do anthropologists NOT need to know to determine when people entered the Americas from Siberia?<n>A.When sled dogs were first domesticated<n>B.When the Bering Strait was exposed and open for travel<n>C.When eastern Siberia was first inhabited<n>D.The age of the earliest New World sites[SEP]A
+When did Aborigines occupy the harsh interior of Australia?<n>A.10,000–12,000 years ago<n>B.20,000–25,000 years ago<n>C.35,000–40,000 years ago<n>D.40,000–45,000 years ago[SEP]B
+What do the Hassunan and Samarran sites in Mesopotamia have in common?<n>A.Both relied heavily on agriculture.<n>B.Both have an abundance of rare luxury items.<n>C.Both have high-status burials.<n>D.Both have sophisticated monumental architecture.[SEP]A
+Which crop is South America's most significant agricultural contribution to Europe?<n>A.rice<n>B.potatoes<n>C.squash<n>D.beans[SEP]B
+What distinguishes the trade patterns of the Mesolithic from those of the Upper Paleolithic?<n>A.in the Mesolithic, goods traveled farther and more goods were exchanged<n>B.in the Mesolithic, goods traveled farther but fewer goods were exchanged<n>C.in the Mesolithic, goods traveled less far but more goods were exchanged<n>D.in the Mesolithic, goods traveled less far and fewer goods were exchanged[SEP]C
+A celebration in which wealth is redistributed is called a:<n>A.potlatch.<n>B.kiva parties.<n>C.totem feasts.<n>D.sinagua.[SEP]A
+Which of the following are techniques of trace element analysis?<n>A.proton magnetometer and electrical resistivity<n>B.accelerator mass spectrometry and photosynthesis pathways<n>C.carbon isotope analysis and experimental replication<n>D.neutron activation analysis and X- ray fluorescence[SEP]D
+The Chinese process of divining the future by examining fired animal bones is called:<n>A.hang-t'u.<n>B.sarsen divination<n>C.scapulimancy<n>D.cylinder seal prophecy[SEP]C
+How have archaeologists characterized the monuments built by the Olmec?<n>A.Halafian ritual monuments<n>B.megalithic chiefdoms<n>C.surplus food storage centers<n>D.regal-ritual centers[SEP]D
+The ethics of conducting archaeological research on sites with human remains of indigenous North American ancestors is addressed by the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act. Problems often arise when:<n>A.both non-indigenous archaeologists and Native Americans are allowed onto the site at the same time.<n>B.there are no Native Americans who have been trained as archaeologists and no archaeologists who are Native American.<n>C.neither archaeologists nor Native Americans can agree on the exact location of burials at the site.<n>D.burials are so ancient that establishing historical or genealogical connections with modern, living groups of people is impossible.[SEP]D
+Which culture, previously-known as the temple-mound builders, based their subsistence primarily on maize and squash agriculture?<n>A.Ancestral Puebloan<n>B.Hohokam<n>C.Mississippian<n>D.Adena[SEP]C
+The city of Uruk and the cultures of the Maya and the Moche were all adversely affected by:<n>A.invasion.<n>B.drought.<n>C.civil war.<n>D.earthquakes.[SEP]B
+What is the wild progenitor of maize?<n>A.einkorn<n>B.emmer<n>C.teosinte<n>D.legumes[SEP]C
+In comparison to the Middle Paleolithic, Upper Paleolithic tool technologies:<n>A.emphasized flakes over blades.<n>B.changed rapidly.<n>C.involved elaborate preparation of core tools.<n>D.all of the above[SEP]B
+Recent genomic analyses of Neandertals and modern human populations indicate that:<n>A.between 1% and 4% of the genome of modern humans with European and Asian ancestry originated from Neandertal populations, most likely through interbreeding.<n>B.Neandertal populations were entirely distinct and separate from anatomically modern humans, with no evidence of interbreeding.<n>C.anatomically modern humans throughout the world uniformly share approximately 16% of their genome with Neandertal populations.<n>D.modern Africans share more than 4% of their genome with Neandertals, far greater than modern European and Asian populations, indicating a lengthier time of successful interbreeding.[SEP]A
+Which of the following is a remote-sensing device used at archaeological sites?<n>A.ground-penetrating radar<n>B.proton magnetometer<n>C.electrical resistivity<n>D.all the above[SEP]D
+Genetic studies of the two primary varieties of rice, japonica (short-grained), and indica (long-grained), suggest that:<n>A.each is more closely related to one another than their local wild ancestors, suggesting that these modern varieties of rice were developed recently in east Asia.<n>B.each is more closely related to local wild ancestors than one another, suggesting that these modern varieties of rice were domesticated separately in east Asia and south Asia.<n>C.each is unrelated to one another, suggesting that these modern varieties of rice were domesticated independently in east Asia and western Europe.<n>D.each is closely related to their local wild ancestors, suggesting that domestication must have occurred very recently and no earlier than 2,000 years ago.[SEP]B
+What do the amount of grave goods buried with the children at Sungir' indicate?<n>A.The tribe spent most of their time carving beads.<n>B.The tribe was involved in an intricate trade network.<n>C.The tribe had a complex system of inherited social statuses.<n>D.The children were sometimes leaders of the tribe.[SEP]C
+At its peak, the population of the city of Teotihuacán may have reached:<n>A.50,000 people.<n>B.200,000 people.<n>C.500,000 people.<n>D.1,000,000 people.[SEP]B
+Nubian civilization:<n>A.predated and spurred the rise of Egyptian culture.<n>B.was the result of Mesopotamian colonization in the south.<n>C.developed in response to, but not in imitation of, Egyptian culture.<n>D.had no contacts with neighboring cultures.[SEP]C
+Having a forward-thrusting lower face is called<n>A.arboreal.<n>B.prognathous.<n>C.diastema.<n>D.mandible.[SEP]B
+What may have caused the Ancestral Puebloans to abandon Mesa Verde?<n>A.the population outstripped the productive capacity of the environment<n>B.drought<n>C.a new religion attracted them to the south<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Which species is most typically first associated with the fashioning and use of stone tools?<n>A.Homo habilis<n>B.Ardipithecus ramidus<n>C.Homo sapiens<n>D.Australopithecus robustus[SEP]A
+A design that is not painted upon but is etched into a rock face is called a:<n>A.pictograph.<n>B.petroglyph.<n>C.pictorial.<n>D.petrification.[SEP]B
+The Gault site in south-central Texas has produced evidence from 13,000 years ago that Paleoindians chose this location based on the:<n>A.nearness of the site to navigable rivers and the Gulf coast.<n>B.abundance of wild game, plants, and fish in a rich and diverse woodland environment.<n>C.proximity to a local source of chert for quarrying and making stone tools.<n>D.nearby location of migratory routes of large mammals such as bison.[SEP]C
+The early Mesolithic Maglemosian culture was adapted to:<n>A.a tundra environment.<n>B.a desert environment.<n>C.a forest and lakeside environment.<n>D.an equatorial environment.[SEP]C
+How were the first metals worked in South America?<n>A.casting<n>B.hammering<n>C.smelting<n>D.all of the above[SEP]B
+What is the Aztec word for a spear-throwing device developed in Europe more than 30,000 years ago?<n>A.chunkey.<n>B.atlatl.<n>C.burin.<n>D.petroglyph.[SEP]B
+The directed breeding of plants and animals by humans is called:<n>A.foraging.<n>B.artificial selection.<n>C.natural selection.<n>D.herding.[SEP]B
+Interestingly, none of the civilizations of ancient South America appear to have developed:<n>A.monumental works.<n>B.irrigation technology.<n>C.a written language.<n>D.significant armies.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not a hypothesis for why hominids walked on two legs?<n>A.it freed the hands to carry things<n>B.it allowed for braincase expansion<n>C.it expended less energy than quadrupedalism for going long distances<n>D.it allowed hominids to see greater distances[SEP]B
+When did the first pharaohs emerge in Egypt?<n>A.3100 B.P.<n>B.4100 B.P.<n>C.5100 B.P.<n>D.6100 B.P.[SEP]C
+There is evidence that the Hohokam borrowed which practice from Mesoamerican culture?<n>A.ritual consumption of maize beer<n>B.ritual human sacrifice<n>C.playing ritual ball games<n>D.construction of stepped pyramids[SEP]C
+One of the less obvious reasons for the Inca to fight so many wars may have been:<n>A.to develop a story line for powerful epic poetry.<n>B.to identify and cultivate talented leaders.<n>C.to kill off a certain percentage of the young male population, thus preventing revolution.<n>D.to appease the gods of war.[SEP]B
+The name Teotihuacán was given to the city by:<n>A.the Aztecs, who continued to make pilgrimages there long after its collapse.<n>B.the Spanish invaders, who largely destroyed it.<n>C.the city's first king, who named it after his favorite deity.<n>D.Olmec traders, who were impressed with its grandeur.[SEP]A
+Which culture hosted the above celebration?<n>A.the Ancestral Puebloans of the southwestern desert<n>B.the Mogollon of the southwestern mountains<n>C.the Kwakiutl of the Pacific Northwest<n>D.the Hopewell of the American Midwest[SEP]C
+Of the following, which is the earliest example of the development of a complex society?<n>A.Jericho in Israel<n>B.Caral in Peru<n>C.Stonehenge in England<n>D.Olmec along the Gulf Coast[SEP]A
+Archaeological evidence for the domestication of cats suggests it occurred when and why?<n>A.before 22,000 years ago, as a result of the shift from opportunistic foraging to logistical collecting<n>B.before 11,000 years ago, as a direct result of artificial selection<n>C.after 11,000 years ago, as an unintentional consequence of food production and storage<n>D.after 9,000 years ago, as an unintentional result of the domestication of cattle and production of milk and cheese[SEP]C
+The most obvious material symbols of ancient state societies are:<n>A.stone tablets.<n>B.pyramids.<n>C.monumental works.<n>D.irrigation canals.[SEP]C
+What is the evidence for trade between Indus Valley cities and the city states of ancient Mesopotamia?<n>A.Obsidian tools have been found at sites in both regions.<n>B.Glass beads, copper, and gold from Mesopotamia have been found at Harappan sites in the Indus Valley.<n>C.Harappan seals have been found in Mesopotamia and Mesopotamian cylinder seals have been found in the Indus valley.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]C
+At the end of the Miocene many species of ape became extinct due to:<n>A.humans killing them.<n>B.an asteroid hitting the Yucatan Peninsula.<n>C.a change in the environment.<n>D.dinosaurs eating them.[SEP]C
+Some of the oldest painted art in the world was recently discovered in caves on the island of Sulawesi in Indonesia. What do the images include and to when do they date?<n>A.animals and human bodies from more than 15,000 to about 20,000 years ago<n>B.animals and hand stencils from more than 35,000 to about 40,000 years ago<n>C.animals and hand stencils from more than 45,000 to about 100,000 years ago<n>D.animals and abstract geometric shapes from 15,000 to more than 100,000 years ago[SEP]B
+A person who believes that the current appearance of the earth can be best explained as having resulted from a series of natural disasters is known as a(n):<n>A.paleoanthropologist.<n>B.natural scientist.<n>C.evolutionist.<n>D.catastrophist.[SEP]D
+What contributes to societies becoming more complex?<n>A.Surplus food is stored in large, collective facilities.<n>B.Crop irrigation requires the construction of dams or canals.<n>C.Sedentary communities need to defend themselves.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]D
+A(n) _________ contains primary refuse; a _________ contains secondary refuse.<n>A.kitchen; garden<n>B.activity area; burial<n>C.picnic site; trash dump<n>D.activity area; recycling area[SEP]C
+Artifacts _________; ecofacts __________<n>A.are valuable and rare; are easy to come by.<n>B.decay rapidly; last for a long time.<n>C.are made by humans; exhibit traces of human activity.<n>D.are facts about art; are facts about nature.[SEP]C
+Pompeii was unusually well preserved because:<n>A.the layer of volcanic pumice created a seal over the remains.<n>B.avalanches pushed the remains into the sea and seawater preserves things.<n>C.poisonous volcanic gases killed people instantly.<n>D.the Romans embalmed the victims with salt from seawater.[SEP]A
+Charles Lyell argued that the Earth must be extremely old based on the fact that:<n>A.many processes that can be observed act extremely slowly.<n>B.uniformitarianism can account for significant geological features.<n>C.erosion works incredibly slowly.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]D
+Homo floresiensis from the island of Flores dates from around 35,000 to 14,000 years ago, and according to some researchers, is similar or related to:<n>A.Homo erectus.<n>B.Homo habilis.<n>C.Homo ergaster.<n>D.Australopithecus afarensis.[SEP]A
+Subsistence practices of people can be determined by recovering and studying:<n>A.the faunal assemblage from a site.<n>B.an osteological comparative collection from a site.<n>C.pumice and evidence of pyroclastic surges.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]A
+When the Spanish explorer Hernando de Soto crossed a portion of the North American continent, his expedition encountered direct descendants of which people?<n>A.Mississippian<n>B.Adena<n>C.Ancestral Puebloan<n>D.Kwakiutl[SEP]A
+Following the classical period, which ended around A.D. 800, Mayan civilization:<n>A.inexplicably disappeared, then began a slow development ending with Aztec civilization.<n>B.entered the second classical period, lost a great war with Teotihuacán, and faded away.<n>C.fell into decline, moved its center north, resurged, and fell into decline once again.<n>D.fell into a sudden decline; the population disappeared and never again built monumental structures.[SEP]C
+During the late Miocene, carbon isotope analysis indicates environmental changes that would have impacted the hominid ancestors of modern humans. These changes are best characterized as:<n>A.a sudden drop in global temperatures resulting in a return to ice age conditions.<n>B.a sudden rise in global temperatures resulting in rising sea levels.<n>C.an expansion of grasslands and reduction in woodlands, resulting in regional mosaic environments.<n>D.a decline in large mammal populations and relative increase in other classes of vertebrate species.[SEP]C
+Which of the following characteristics of modern humans is the most ancient, pre-dating the Late Stone Age, the Upper Paleolithic and even anatomically modern humans?<n>A.elaborate burials<n>B.larger sites with larger populations<n>C.improved stone tool technologies<n>D.symbolic expression through the production of art[SEP]C
+Moving through trees by swinging arm over arm is called:<n>A.bipedal locomotion.<n>B.brachiation.<n>C.quadrupedal locomotion.<n>D.a savanna niche.[SEP]B
+Why is Catalhoyuk in central Turkey regarded as a large village but not a city?<n>A.There were no palaces, public architecture, and little evidence for status differentiation.<n>B.There was no evidence for food storage, domesticated animals, or buildings.<n>C.There were no works of art, rituals, or activities associated with cities.<n>D.There was no evidence for monumental architecture or roads.[SEP]A
+Which of the following are four of the characteristics of civilization?<n>A.food surpluses, specialists, urban settlements, and a system of record keeping<n>B.food surpluses, a standing army, artwork, and a system of plumbing<n>C.food surpluses, monumental architecture, religious buildings, and museums<n>D.museums, libraries, monumental architecture, and artwork[SEP]A
+Which of the following most strongly indicates advances in the human intellect during the Upper Paleolithic?<n>A.parietal and mobiliary art<n>B.new stone-tool technologies<n>C.acquisition of non-local raw materials<n>D.changes in settlement patterns[SEP]A
+With which of the following techniques were the native navigators of the Pacific NOT familiar?<n>A.bird flight paths<n>B.currents and wind patterns<n>C.magnetic orientation to the poles<n>D.cloud patterns[SEP]C
+Recent research with stone tool replication and brain imaging suggests the following hypothesis:<n>A.connections made in tool making prepared the brain for the production and use of language.<n>B.tool making requires cooperation that can only exist with language.<n>C.tool making originated millions of years after language evolved.<n>D.connections made between the brain and bipedal locomotion prepared the hands for tool making.[SEP]A
+The earliest-known use of bronze is found in:<n>A.South America.<n>B.Mesopotamia.<n>C.the Indus Valley.<n>D.China.[SEP]D
+The New World, “discovered” by Christopher Columbus, was filled with approximately how many people?<n>A.100,000<n>B.500,000<n>C.1,000,000<n>D.tens of millions[SEP]D
+Which of the following sites has monumental earthworks with concentric ridges in a semicircle that date from around 3,500 years ago?<n>A.Caral<n>B.Stonehenge<n>C.Poverty Point<n>D.Gobekli Tepe[SEP]C
+The controversial theory that people from present-day Europe colonized North America at the end of Pleistocene is:<n>A.supported by genetic evidence that establishes close connections between the oldest skeletons in the Americas and the European genome.<n>B.refuted by genetic evidence from the oldest skeletons in the Americas that establishes close connections between modern Native Americans and the native people of central Siberia.<n>C.proven by genetic evidence that establishes close connections between the oldest skeletons in the Americas and Norse explorers who arrived in northeastern Canada around A.D. 1000.<n>D.refuted by the complete absence of documents that record a migration of Europeans into the Americas.[SEP]B
+What was the required labor service owed to the king in return for the privilege of using property owned by the Incan empire?<n>A.Khipu<n>B.Mit'a<n>C.Split inheritance<n>D.Capacocha[SEP]B
+Archaeology is a subfield of:<n>A.biological anthropology.<n>B.anthropology.<n>C.cultural anthropology.<n>D.paleoanthropology.[SEP]B
+When did the acquisition of raw materials from greater distances increase, and what does it indicate?<n>A.during the Upper Paleolithic; long- distance contacts with greater reliance on trade with distant groups<n>B.during the Middle Paleolithic; the acquisition of raw materials from greater distances indicates people moved more often<n>C.during the Middle Paleolithic; broader social networks were based on frequent movement for trade and long-distance contacts<n>D.during the Upper Paleolithic; the importance of higher-quality, imported materials was more widely appreciated[SEP]A
+According to the author, what did the Olmec have in common that bound them together in different territories?<n>A.underlying religious beliefs, as seen in Olmec art and iconography<n>B.agricultural surpluses that led to the creation of economic inequalities<n>C.they spoke the same language and were related by kinship and marriage<n>D.a system of trade and exchange, as seen in tokens used as a form of money[SEP]A
+Unlike Mesopotamian writings, the records left by the Maya are principally concerned with:<n>A.political and military history.<n>B.philosophy and religion.<n>C.trade and economics.<n>D.astronomy and mathematics.[SEP]A
+Based on archaeological evidence, which of the following is accurate regarding civilization in general?<n>A.The occurrence of warfare decreases as people increasingly invest time in the production of art.<n>B.The occurrence of warfare is uncommon and occurs only with the concentration of wealth.<n>C.The concentration of wealth is a common feature.<n>D.The concentration of wealth is uncommon and occurs only occasionally.[SEP]C
+Based on the morphology of fossil hominids dating from about 1.8 million until about 400,000 years ago, researchers argue that:<n>A.there were two or more related but geographically separate hominid species during this period that evolved from earlier African hominids<n>B.hominids dating from this time can be grouped into different species in Africa, Asia, and Europe.<n>C.all of the hominids that evolved from Homo habilis and predate Homo sapiens belong in a single, geographically widespread but morphologically diverse species known as Homo erectus.<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+The evolutionary histories of different kinds of organisms and their relationships to each other are illustrated in a:<n>A.diastema.<n>B.phylogeny.<n>C.mosaic.<n>D.genera,[SEP]B
+In comparison to an Oldowan tool, a hand axe ____________.<n>A.is made out of stone, wood, or bone.<n>B.needs constant cleaning and maintenance.<n>C.requires metal and a source of heat to be forged<n>D.requires many more flakes to be removed.[SEP]D
+Homo erectus is most closely associated with which tool-making tradition?<n>A.Occipital<n>B.Acheulean<n>C.Oldowan<n>D.Stadial[SEP]B
+Opportunistic foraging involves:<n>A.careful planning and scheduling.<n>B.reliance on steady sources of food such as shellfish.<n>C.increased use of imported or "exotic" materials<n>D.little planning[SEP]D
+In rare cases, the residue of blood on ancient stone tools can:<n>A.prevent archaeologists from doing their research, since only forensic anthropologists can study bloody tools.<n>B.be used to identify the species of animals killed and likely eaten.<n>C.be used to predict the types of weapons that were not used for hunting.<n>D.none of the above; blood does not preserve and has never been identified on stone tools.[SEP]B
+How were the royal cemeteries of the Moche discovered?<n>A.Thieves raiding the tombs were caught by the police.<n>B.A forest fire burned away the dense vegetation that concealed the cemetery.<n>C.Archaeologists discovered an exact replica of the city in the map room.<n>D.A flock of sheep that had been living there fell into a tomb.[SEP]A
+The ancient city of Cahokia contained more than _______ and a population of around _______.<n>A.120 earthen mounds; 10,000<n>B.60 burial mounds; 2,000<n>C.50 religious monuments; 5,000<n>D.200 pyramidal mounds; 200,000[SEP]A
+Based on the analysis of oxygen isotope ratios in the shells of gastropods found in the sediments of an ancient lake, what happened to civilization in the Indus Valley?<n>A.It became increasingly complex due to increased rainfall and longer growing seasons.<n>B.It eventually collapsed due to climate change and drought.<n>C.It collapsed due to increased monsoons and a series of catastrophic floods.<n>D.It evolved into a series of city states along rivers and lake shores.[SEP]B
+Clovis points are NOT found in:<n>A.Alaska.<n>B.Mexico.<n>C.Canada.<n>D.the continental United States.[SEP]A
+Which culture lived a primarily sedentary lifestyle in the Southwest?<n>A.Adena<n>B.Mogollon<n>C.Kwakiutl<n>D.Mississippian[SEP]B
+Lewis Henry Morgan conceived of progress in human culture according to the stages of:<n>A.Savagery, Barbarism, and Civilization.<n>B.Savagery, Civilization, and Collapse.<n>C.Barbarism, Primitivism, and Civilization.<n>D.Stone Age, Bronze Age, and Iron Age.[SEP]A
+By 1900 B.P., the central elements of Mayan culture were in place. These did NOT include:<n>A.stratified societies ruled by kings.<n>B.ritual ball games and a reverence for precious jade.<n>C.a sophisticated bronze producing industry.<n>D.a hieroglyphic written language and calendar.[SEP]C
+Machu Picchu was built in the mountains as a:<n>A.defensive stronghold.<n>B.shrine to the Inca rain god.<n>C.relaxing getaway for elites.<n>D.astronomical observatory.[SEP]C
+What evidence is there that Neandertals were hunters?<n>A.Neandertal canine teeth showed that they relied only on meat for their subsistence.<n>B.Animal bones were found showing stone tool cut marks and no animal teeth marks.<n>C.Bones of large animals, such as elephant and horse, were found in caves.<n>D.Both A and C.[SEP]B
+Why do we know more about Neandertals than other extinct species of premodern humans?<n>A.Neandertals spread throughout the world and their remains are found on every continent.<n>B.Neandertals used caves in Europe where their remains were preserved.<n>C.Neandertal populations were larger and more violent than any other premodern humans, whom they drove to extinction.<n>D.Neandertals left crude but intelligible written records.[SEP]B
+The attitude of many ancient elites toward the consumption of resources seems to have been:<n>A.“a penny saved is a penny earned."<n>B."if you've got it, flaunt it."<n>C."look before you leap."<n>D."the last shall be first and the first shall be last."[SEP]B
+In 1797, John Frere made a discovery that he described as:<n>A.animal remains scattered on the surface of the ground.<n>B.the earliest written documents.<n>C.primitive stone tools excavated at great depth.<n>D.human skulls with ape-like features.[SEP]C
+Which of the following first described human culture according to a predictable chronology of a Stone Age, Bronze Age, and Iron Age?<n>A.uniformitarianism<n>B.multilinear evolution<n>C.three-age system<n>D.. triple-age catastrophism[SEP]C
+Tiwanaku, with its capital at Titicaca, was one of the ___________ kingdoms of the ancient world.<n>A.richest<n>B.strongest<n>C.largest<n>D.highest[SEP]D
+Monte Alban is located in the ________ and was built by the _________.<n>A.Valley of Mexico; Aztec.<n>B.Valley of Oaxaca; Zapotec.<n>C.Amazon floodplain; Olmec.<n>D.Yucatán Peninsula; Maya.[SEP]B
+In Holocene Africa, the __________ was replaced by the ____________.<n>A.microlith blade; backed blade<n>B.Iberomaurusian culture; Capsian culture<n>C.Capsian culture; Iberomaurusian culture<n>D.Maglemosian; Natufian[SEP]B
+What was NOT a deciding factor in the development of Mesopotamian civilization?<n>A.the need to concentrate population away from arable lands near rivers<n>B.the need to construct monumental works, such as step-pyramids and temples<n>C.the need to develop a complex social system that would allow the construction of canals<n>D.the use of irrigation to produce enough food[SEP]A
+Which of the following crops was NOT an important component of Hopewell subsistence?<n>A.sunflower<n>B.squash<n>C.maize<n>D.knotweed[SEP]C
+Unequivocal evidence for art as symbolic expression dates from as early as:<n>A.95,000 BP, at Dolni Vestonice.<n>B.77,000 BP, at Blombos Cave.<n>C.50,000 BP, at Des Moines, IA.<n>D.36,000 BP, at Wharton Hill.[SEP]B
+What was the Chinese technique of stamped or pounded earth that was used in construction of house walls and defensive structures?<n>A.Hang-t'u<n>B.Scapulimancy<n>C.Lung-shan<n>D.Qin manufacture[SEP]A
+The Lake Forest Archaic tradition relied on ____________ resources; the Maritime Archaic hunted ___________ creatures.<n>A.pelagic; midden<n>B.lacustrine; pelagic<n>C.midden; littoral<n>D.littoral; lacustrine[SEP]B
+Genetic evidence indicates that the modern Inuit are the descendants of which people?<n>A.Paleo-Eskimos<n>B.Dorset<n>C.Thule<n>D.Clovis[SEP]C
+Which tool technology is associated with anatomically modern Homo sapiens?<n>A.Aurignacian<n>B.Acheulean<n>C.Mousterian<n>D.both b and c[SEP]A
+What is the difference between an absolute date and a relative date?<n>A.An absolute date is known by everyone, while a relative date ranges from 30 to 50 years.<n>B.A relative date is derived from radiometric dating techniques, while an absolute date is only associated with written documents.<n>C.A relative date refers to a year or a range of years, while an absolute date indicates a chronological order.<n>D.An absolute date refers to a year or a range of years, while a relative date indicates a chronological order.[SEP]D
+Upon exploring Rhode Island, the Italian navigator Giovanni de Verrazzano noted that the native people resembled:<n>A.Italians.<n>B.Asians.<n>C.Australians.<n>D.Melanesians.[SEP]B
+Like the urban centers of the Indus Valley, Teotihuacán appears to have been:<n>A.equipped with sophisticated plumbing and cooling systems.<n>B.subject to constant outbreaks of plague and disease.<n>C.surrounded by an enormous agricultural hinterland.<n>D.planned and built on a grid pattern.[SEP]D
+The population of the Valley of Mexico was supported by means of:<n>A.long-distance trade, salt mining, and stone masonry.<n>B.hunting and gathering, fishing, and cultivation of root crops.<n>C.advanced medical, artisanal, and metallurgical technologies.<n>D.agricultural irrigation, terraces, and artificially raised fields called chinampas.[SEP]D
+Which subfield of anthropology has been described as studying "other people's garbage"?<n>A.primatology<n>B.archaeology<n>C.paleoanthropology<n>D.linguistics[SEP]B
+What did the Moche build at the heart of their urban center?<n>A.a vast complex of temples and artisan workshops<n>B.an enormous walled-in precinct of elite residences<n>C.the Pyramid of the Sun<n>D.the Temple of the Feathered Serpent[SEP]C
+Mayan city-states were NOT:<n>A.ruled by autonomous dynasties.<n>B.similar in their political organization to Egyptian communities.<n>C.supported by large agricultural hinterlands.<n>D.much smaller in population than Mohanjo-daro.[SEP]B
+The argument in favor of hominids making and using stone tools by at least 3.3 million years ago is supported by:<n>A.cut marks on animal bones that were made by butchering with pieces of stone.<n>B.the anatomy of Australopithecus africanus hands and analogies with studies of living non-human primates that demonstrate tool use.<n>C.simple stone cores, anvil stones, and flakes found at the Lomekwi 3 site in West Turkana, Kenya.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]D
+What do the amounts of rainfall in the Maya homeland, as reflected in variations in oxygen isotopes in a stalagmite in Yok Balum Cave in Belize, correspond to?<n>A.increased rainfall and severe flooding that led to the collapse of Maya ceremonial centers<n>B.severe drought and a decline in construction at Maya ceremonial centers<n>C.increased rainfall and increased storage of surplus food from agriculture<n>D.increased warfare and the abandonment of the entire region[SEP]B
+In the author's two-hour movie representing the history of the universe, when do the earliest members of the human family appear?<n>A.at the beginning of the film<n>B.about half way through the film<n>C.90 minutes into the film<n>D.during the final 3 seconds of the film[SEP]D
+Which best describes Stonehenge?<n>A.Megalithic monument<n>B.Halafian monumental center<n>C.Chavin ritual monument<n>D.Mesopotamian monument[SEP]A
+Which commonly used name for a culture was borrowed from another Native American language and literally means “ancient enemies”?<n>A.Kwakiutl<n>B.Hohokam<n>C.Anasazi<n>D.Mogollon[SEP]C
+Paleogenetic and paleoecological evidence points to dates of occupation for Australia as far back as:<n>A.80,000 B.P.<n>B.70,000 B.P.<n>C.60,000 B.P.<n>D.40,000 B.P.[SEP]C
+The Egyptian system of hieroglyphics:<n>A.did not use pictographs<n>B.appears to have developed suddenly<n>C.was the earliest form of writing in the world<n>D.all of the above[SEP]B
+What do we know about the people who built Stonehenge based on the analysis of animal teeth from a nearby village?<n>A.They raised livestock at the site, including cattle, sheep, and goats.<n>B.They brought animals to the site from outside of the region.<n>C.They had no domesticated animals but hunted wild animals for meat.<n>D.They hunted antelope, gazelle, and bear.[SEP]B
+Evidence from the modern human genome suggests that genes inherited from Neandertals:<n>A.are universally beneficial to modern humans.<n>B.control the metabolism of fat in modern Europeans.<n>C.are associated with human diseases such as Lupus.<n>D.both b and c.[SEP]D
+The Nazca geoglyphs extend over miles and represent:<n>A.entrances to subterranean tombs of the elite.<n>B.vast architectural designs for cities and towns.<n>C.ceremonial pathways and effigies of spirits and gods.<n>D.landing strips for spaceships.[SEP]C
+The fact that early excavators of Teotihuacán mistook ordinary housing compounds for palaces suggests:<n>A.the general standard of living was high.<n>B.commoners took over the residences of the elite.<n>C.the city was a democracy, ruled by common farmers and artisans.<n>D.the society was mostly egalitarian, with almost no social stratification.[SEP]A
+Why is the timing of monumental construction at Ceibal significant?<n>A.It contradicts the hypothesis that the monumental construction of the Maya was largely inspired by the Olmec.<n>B.It confirms that the residents of Ceibal were inspired by the Olmec to build large platforms.<n>C.It contradicts the hypothesis that the development of monumental construction among the Maya was an internal process.<n>D.It confirms that the Olmec, who built most of the Maya monuments, were inspired by the Egyptians.[SEP]A
+The origins of Chinese civilization can be traced to:<n>A.the site of An-yang near the Huang ho River.<n>B.chiefdoms and states in numerous regions throughout China.<n>C.the beginning of the Qin Dynasty.<n>D.external influences originating from the Indus Valley.[SEP]B
+How long ago did human groups begin actively controlling their food sources by artificially producing conditions under which these sources would grow?<n>A.within the past 6,000 years<n>B.within the past 12,000 years<n>C.within the past 18,000 years<n>D.within the past 28,000 years[SEP]B
+For which of the following is there evidence for Neandertals?<n>A.Neandertals adorned themselves with pendants and necklaces.<n>B.Neandertals buried their dead.<n>C.Neandertals produced and used complex stone tools.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]D
+What occupation date do most archaeologists agree on for Australia?<n>A.no earlier than 80,000 years ago<n>B.soon after 60,000 years ago<n>C.soon after 40,000 years ago<n>D.no earlier than 20,000 years ago[SEP]C
+Which of the following dating techniques are based on the measurement of the amount of energy trapped in materials that have been heated at archaeological sites?<n>A.argon/argon and potassium argon dating<n>B.archaeomagnetic and radiocarbon dating<n>C.luminescence dating and optically stimulated luminescence<n>D.X-ray fluorescence and paleomagnetic dating[SEP]C
+Which tool technology is associated with Neandertals?<n>A.Aurignacian<n>B.Acheulean<n>C.Mousterian<n>D.both b and c[SEP]C
+Conflict models emphasize the importance of __________ tensions in the development of state societies, while integration models emphasize ____________ tensions.<n>A.external; internal<n>B.military; religious<n>C.internal; external<n>D.extrafamilial; interfamilial[SEP]C
+Homo erectus differed from Homo habilis in which way?<n>A.Erectus fossils are found only in Africa.<n>B.Erectus possessed a smaller brain.<n>C.Erectus possessed a larger brain.<n>D.Erectus was a relatively short-lived species.[SEP]C
+There is general consensus among paleoanthropologists that anatomically modern humans:<n>A.migrated out of Africa into western Europe between 150,000 and 200,000 years ago and then spread into Asia, Australia, and the Americas.<n>B.evolved in Asia between 100,000 and 50,000 years ago, and then migrated into Africa, Europe, Australia, and the Americas.<n>C.evolved independently and simultaneously in Africa, Europe, and Asia and then migrated into Australia and the Americas.<n>D.migrated out of Africa into Southwest Asia between 150,000 and 100,000 years ago and then spread into Europe, Asia, Australia, and the Americas.[SEP]D
+Homo erectus was:<n>A.a stable, long-lived species.<n>B.an unsuccessful, short-lived species.<n>C.the first hominid to make and use stone tools.<n>D.the first hominid to stand “erect” and walk upright.[SEP]A
+About 2.6 to 1.9 million years ago the planet became much _____ and entered the ______:<n>A.colder; Pleistocene epoch.<n>B.hotter; Miocene epoch.<n>C.colder; Pliocene epoch.<n>D.hotter; Pleistocene epoch.[SEP]A
+Mayan art and iconography prominently feature depictions of:<n>A.infants and children.<n>B.stars and comets.<n>C.love and sex.<n>D.mutilation and violence.[SEP]D
+Taphonomy is:<n>A.a systematic classification based on similarities and differences.<n>B.a dating technique based on the decay of a radioactive isotope of bone.<n>C.a study of the spatial relationships among artifacts, ecofacts, and features.<n>D.the study of how materials ended up in a particular place.[SEP]D
+The large, extinct herbivores of the Pleistocene era are referred to as:<n>A.megaliths.<n>B.megafauna.<n>C.megaflora.<n>D.megatrons.[SEP]B
+Recovery of more than 6,500 bones and bone fragments from 28 individuals of a single hominid species at the Cave of the Bones in Spain provides:<n>A.little evidence of diversity, since each individual represents a different species.<n>B.unusually good evidence to examine diversity within a hominid species.<n>C.evidence of interbreeding between Homo neanderthalensis and Homo erectus.<n>D.relatively little evidence to examine diversity within the species.[SEP]B
+Charles Darwin discovered that plants and animals had evolved through a process known as ____________. Early archaeologists discovered that ______________________.<n>A.scientific creationism; human culture evolved differently than plants and animals<n>B.unilineal evolution; civilizations evolved more quickly than plants<n>C.natural selection; human culture did not evolve or change much over time<n>D.natural selection; human culture had evolved over an enormous period of time[SEP]D
+The construction of large-scale features, such as mounds and shell middens, is often taken by archaeologists as evidence of:<n>A.the practice of slavery.<n>B.social and political complexity.<n>C.a Mesolithic tradition.<n>D.the shift from Paleolithic to Neolithic.[SEP]B
+The Shang Dynasty laid the foundation for a coherent development of Chinese civilization that lasted well into the:<n>A.10th century.<n>B.13th century.<n>C.17th century.<n>D.20th century.[SEP]D
+What do Homo sapiens and Australopithecus afarensis have in common?<n>A.a mode of locomotion<n>B.a reliance on brachiation<n>C.a lack of sexual dimorphism<n>D.all the above[SEP]A
+What effect did the late Pleistocene to early Holocene climate change have on human populations?<n>A.It forced populations to move toward the equator.<n>B.It tested the ability of human beings to adapt.<n>C.It forced humans to wear clothing.<n>D.It had no effect at all.[SEP]B
+Recent discoveries of Homo naledi fossils in the Dinaledi Chamber of the Rising Star cave system in South Africa suggest a mixture of post-cranial morphologies or mosaic of hominid traits. One of the reasons this new species is controversial is that:<n>A.there are already two well-known species of Homo and it is unlikely there were more than two species at one time.<n>B.paleoanthropologists did not make the discovery and it was found in an inaccessible cave in South Africa.<n>C.there is, as yet, no firm date that can be applied to the specimens.<n>D.the Homo naledi fossils have been shown to pre-date the earliest known hominid fossils by millions of years.[SEP]C
+A genetic study comparing the bones of a 7,000-year-old skeleton found in Germany, eight human skeletons dating to 8,000 years ago in Luxembourg, and more than 2,300 living Europeans found that the modern European genome included contributions from:<n>A.the earliest anatomically modern Homo sapiens who lived in Europe 45,000 years ago.<n>B.people genetically traceable to the Middle East who moved into Europe about 9,000 years ago.<n>C.people who moved there from west Asia less than 5,000 years ago.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is archaeological evidence of social stratification and inequality?<n>A.Burials without exotic grave goods also contain bones indicating that they engaged in less strenuous labor.<n>B.Burials with exotic grave goods also contain bones indicating that they engaged in less strenuous labor.<n>C.Burials all contain equal amounts of exotic grave goods, but some are more impressive than others.<n>D.Burials contain bones indicating that people were segregated based on gender, stature, and personal capabilities, including artistic abilities.[SEP]B
+Periods much colder than the present, which were characterized by widespread ice and snow cover, are known as:<n>A.altricials.<n>B.glacials.<n>C.interstadials.<n>D.interglacials.[SEP]B
+Up to 50,000 years ago, what was the relationship between anatomically modern humans and us?<n>A.They looked and thought like us.<n>B.They looked like us but did not think like us.<n>C.They thought like us but did not look like us.<n>D.They did not look or think like us.[SEP]B
+The Omo I cranium discovered along the Omo River in southern Ethiopia demonstrates:<n>A.the evolution of anatomically modern humans from premodern species about 200,000 years ago in Africa.<n>B.the simultaneous evolution of anatomically modern humans about 100,000 years ago in Africa and Europe.<n>C.the development of a larger brain prior to the first evidence for tool making.<n>D.both b and c.[SEP]A
+Researchers who study humans by residing in particular societies and observing the behaviors of the people are known as:<n>A.archaeologists.<n>B.ethnographers.<n>C.linguists.<n>D.paleoanthropologists.[SEP]B
+What culture used hide boats and spread across the Arctic, from Alaska to Greenland beginning about 700 years ago, in a third wave of migration from the Old World into the New?<n>A.Paleo-Eskimos<n>B.Dorset<n>C.Thule<n>D.Clovis[SEP]C
+What Mesopotamian institution was set apart and had powers before the advent of social complexity?<n>A.the military<n>B.the state<n>C.the temple<n>D.the hunting association[SEP]C
+What was concluded in a recent study comparing the genomes of modern people with ancient skeletal remains in North and South America?<n>A.Native Americans in North America and South America genetically diverged from each other and their ancestors in the far north by about 30,000 years ago.<n>B.All Native Americans, both ancient and modern, are derived from a single migration of Austral-Melanesians into the Americas by about 13,000 years ago.<n>C.All Native Americans, both ancient and modern, are derived from a single migration of the Inuit, who arrived in the Americas by about 13,000 years ago.<n>D.The separation between native Siberians and the earliest Native Americans occurred sometime between 20,000 and 23,000 years ago.[SEP]D
+Based on the strontium isotope ratios in the teeth of people buried at Copán, who were the rulers?<n>A.local elite who rose to power based on their popularity and knowledge of politics<n>B.foreigners from different regions across much of the Maya territory<n>C.an elite class of astronomer-priests who ate mostly vegetables and fish<n>D.Egyptian emigrants who arrived on ships and taught the Maya how to build pyramids[SEP]B
+What does the lid of the sarcophagus of Pacal the Great, ruler of Palenque, depict?<n>A.the slain enemies of the king, with a series of hieroglyphs representing all of the great cities and civilizations of the world<n>B.the dead king suspended between the Maya earth monster and the Quetzal bird which symbolizes the Maya heaven<n>C.the Aztec king ascending to heaven on a chariot made of gold<n>D.an ancient alien looking through a telescope and piloting a spaceship[SEP]B
+The commoners of the rural Aztec villages of Capilco and Cuexcomate:<n>A.were ruled by an iron fist by the king, who had armies stationed there.<n>B.were forced to send half of all maize they grew to the king as tribute and lived in absolute poverty.<n>C.were mostly left alone and did fairly well for themselves.<n>D.had no protection from city states that invaded from the north.[SEP]C
+The skulls of the earliest migrants to the New World do not match those of modern Native Americans. This suggests that:<n>A.modern Native Americans are probably not descended from these early migrants.<n>B.the "skull" haplogroup was not passed on.<n>C.modern Native Americans have very different DNA.<n>D.craniometrics is an unreliable method of tracking populations.[SEP]D
+A place where people lived and/or worked and where the physical evidence of their existence can be recovered is an archaeological:<n>A.artifact.<n>B.sample.<n>C.site.<n>D.culture.[SEP]C
+The practice of _________ allowed the Inca to greatly increase the amount of arable land.<n>A.irrigating<n>B.terracing<n>C.slashing and burning<n>D.fertilizing[SEP]B
+In Randall White's view, what do items of personal adornment imply during the Upper Paleolithic period?<n>A.a willingness to travel great distances<n>B.a hobby done around the campfire at night<n>C.increasing awareness and importance of individual identity<n>D.greater intelligence and willingness to cooperate[SEP]C
+The revolution in food production that accelerated worldwide population growth is called the ________; it occurred _____ years ago.<n>A.Upper Paleolithic Transition; after 35,000 years ago<n>B.Mesolithic Demographic Transition; beginning 18,000 years ago<n>C.Neolithic Demographic Transition; beginning 11,000 years ago<n>D.Neolithic Revolution; after 5,000 years ago[SEP]C
+Trace element analysis can be used to determine:<n>A.the morphology and age of an artifact or ecofact.<n>B.the geographic source of the raw material from which an artifact was made.<n>C.the wear patterns on tools.<n>D.the associations and context of an artifact, ecofact, or feature.[SEP]B
+The record-keeping system used by the Inca in which a series of knotted strings were used as mnemonic devices is called:<n>A.cuneiform.<n>B.rachis.<n>C.mit'a.<n>D.khipu.[SEP]D
+The Minoans inhabited the _________ island of Crete.<n>A.Mediterranean<n>B.Egyptian<n>C.Mesopotamian<n>D.Indonesian[SEP]A
+Which of the following describes a key change in hominids beginning at least as early as Homo erectus that is probably related to increasingly larger brain size?<n>A.microcephaly<n>B.neoteny<n>C.prognathism<n>D.supraorbital cortex[SEP]B
+Inca architecture is noted for its:<n>A.incorporation of wood, earth, and stone.<n>B.unprecedented size and sophistication.<n>C.precise jigsaw-like stone masonry.<n>D.use of the vaulted arch.[SEP]C
+What was found in some of the burials at the principal Liangzhu site in eastern China that represents elite status?<n>A.finely crafted large jade disks called bi<n>B.thousands of shell discs called “bi” that were used as a source of money<n>C.copper earspools that were worn by the deceased<n>D.gold headdresses that were worn by the deceased[SEP]A
+Most caves containing paintings are:<n>A.expensive to visit.<n>B.buried deep underground.<n>C.found in France.<n>D.closed to visitors because of light and moisture damage.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is evidence for interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals?<n>A.All modern humans share a major percentage of their genome with Neandertals.<n>B.All Neandertals share a major percentage of their genome with modern humans.<n>C.A small but significant percentage of the genome of modern humans who trace their ancestry to Europe and Asia originated with Neandertals.<n>D.A small but significant percentage of the genome of Neandertals is found in anatomically modern humans who trace their ancestry to Africa.[SEP]C
+Upper Egypt is ________ of Lower Egypt.<n>A.north<n>B.south<n>C.east<n>D.west[SEP]B
+The death of Qin Dynasty emperor Ying Zheng was marked by what elaborate memorial?<n>A.An enormous mortuary temple filled with gold and gems.<n>B.An enormous pyramid constructed out of millions of huge limestone blocks.<n>C.The collective suicide of 60 members of the royal family.<n>D.An 8,000-member life-sized terra cotta army.[SEP]D
+The Mayan king Yax Pahsaj symbolized his royalty on a stele that depicts:<n>A.an eagle, a serpent, and a jaguar, all of which were important royal animals.<n>B.a series of decisive military conquests against a rival king.<n>C.a lightning bolt descending from heaven and marking him as the leader.<n>D.the founder of the dynasty “passing him the torch.”[SEP]D
+Why did the spear-thrower represent a useful innovation and to when does it date?<n>A.It made warfare so deadly that it became obsolete beginning in the Middle Paleolithic and Middle Stone Age.<n>B.It allowed artistic expression by hunters beginning in the Middle Paleolithic and Middle Stone Age.<n>C.It launched larger spears more quickly and more frequently beginning in the Upper Paleolithic and Late Stone Age.<n>D.It launched projectiles with greater force and accuracy beginning in the Upper Paleolithic and Late Stone Age.[SEP]D
+From which of the following primates do humans descend?<n>A.chimpanzees<n>B.gorillas<n>C.orangutans<n>D.none of the above[SEP]D
+Excavation of Yang-shao sites in China indicates which domesticated crops?<n>A.beans, millet, and maize.<n>B.wheat, rice, and peas.<n>C.sorghum, emmer, and legumes.<n>D.millet, cabbage, and rice.[SEP]D
+A subsistence strategy and settlement pattern based on seasonality and planned acquisition of resources is known as:<n>A.opportunistic foraging.<n>B.logistical collecting.<n>C.symbolic foraging.<n>D.mobiliary collecting.[SEP]B
+Analysis of the teeth of a hominid species discovered in Malapa Cave in South Africa, dating just after 2 million years ago, indicates a diet that consisted primarily of:<n>A.fruits, leaves, and C3 plants.<n>B.meat derived from carnivorous mammals.<n>C.meat, fish, and some plants.<n>D.C4 grasses that may have included wild wheat.[SEP]A
+The appropriateness and usefulness of pedestrian survey depends on:<n>A.the presence of primary and secondary refuse.<n>B.naturally exposed layers in which to search for artifacts, ecofacts, or bone.<n>C.associations that can be established between artifacts, ecofacts, and bone.<n>D.the existence of a cache or collection of artifacts.[SEP]B
+Since the end of the Pleistocene, humans have increasingly been responsible for the extinction of animal species. If allowed to continue, what are the likely consequences of these extinctions?<n>A.It will have negative impacts on agriculture.<n>B.It will have negative impacts on water quality.<n>C.It will have negative impacts on human health.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]D
+what is one of the important differences between the middle and upper paleolithic?<n>A.decreased use of imported raw materials and increased use of whatever was locally available<n>B.smaller sites, indicating a change from large roving bands of hunters to the earliest family groups and households<n>C.a profusion of stone tool traditions, indicating a change from temporal and geographic homogeneity to greater diversity and variability<n>D.a gradual decline in the use of stone hand axes and tools, indicating a change to more flexible and workable materials such as wood and bone[SEP]C
+Where did the world's first civilization develop?<n>A.Eastern China<n>B.Crete<n>C.Egypt<n>D.Mesopotamia[SEP]D
+There is evidence that premodern Homo sapiens existed:<n>A.800,000 to 200,000 years ago.<n>B.600,000 to 30,000 years ago.<n>C.400,000 to 10,000 years ago.<n>D.100,000 to 10,000 years ago.[SEP]B
+In primates, the location of which of the following determines if it is a quadruped or biped?<n>A.the feet<n>B.the skull<n>C.the foramen magnum<n>D.the ulna[SEP]C
+Homo habilis emerged around ________ years ago; Homo erectus followed at around _________ years ago.<n>A.4.5 million; 3.2 million<n>B.3.6 million; 2.8 million<n>C.2.5 million; 1.8 million<n>D.1.4 million; 800,000[SEP]C
+In what way were Neandertals physically different from modern Homo sapiens?<n>A.Neandertals had wide, squat torsos and short extremities.<n>B.Neandertals had smaller brains and larger noses.<n>C.Neandertal skeletons have more bones that modern Homo sapiens.<n>D.Both a and b.[SEP]A
+After 400,000 years ago, hominid evolution is characterized by:<n>A.bipedalism and relatively stable brain size.<n>B.a slight decrease in average brain size.<n>C.a rapid increase in brain size.<n>D.slowly increased brain size and the first stone tools.[SEP]C
+Which perspective asserts that the Earth and all living organisms are less than six thousand years old and have changed little, if at all, since then?<n>A.uniformitarian<n>B.paleoanthropological<n>C.creationist<n>D.all of the above[SEP]C
+Archaeological evidence indicates that cattle were first domesticated where and how long ago?<n>A.in western Europe, about 3,500 years ago<n>B.in sub-Saharan Africa, about 8,500 years ago<n>C.in North America, about 9,500 years ago<n>D.in the Middle East, about 10,500 years ago[SEP]D
+The spread of a shared religious iconography in ancient civilizations may be an indication of what?<n>A.decreased violence and a time of increased peace<n>B.cultural and perhaps political unification<n>C.increased trade and the use of some form of money<n>D.the beginning of organized religion and ending of human sacrifice[SEP]B
+What made it possible to recover the nearly intact finely-made wooden spears from a 300,000-year-old site at Schöningen, Germany?<n>A.The soil was highly acidic and aerobic, which offers excellent preservation for organic artifacts.<n>B.The soil was waterlogged and provided conditions that allowed for the preservation of organic material.<n>C.The wooden spears were placed in a cache of artifacts in plain sight, where archaeologists would eventually find them.<n>D.The wooden spears were covered with dried blood mixed with charcoal and mud, which allows for the preservation of wood.[SEP]B
+Which continent features the earliest evidence of etching into a rock face?<n>A.Europe<n>B.Africa<n>C.Asia<n>D.Australia[SEP]D
+Which of the following are dating techniques based on the half-life of a radioactive isotope and are used to date the age of rock?<n>A.argon/argon and potassium argon dating<n>B.archaeomagnetic and radiocarbon dating<n>C.luminescence dating and optically stimulated luminescence<n>D.X-ray fluorescence and paleomagnetic dating[SEP]A
+Australian and America megafauna were probably wiped out by:<n>A.humans.<n>B.environmental changes.<n>C.both humans and environmental changes.<n>D.humans who carried diseases over the land bridge.[SEP]C
+Archaeological and genetic evidence indicates that the process of domestication involving the separation of wolves from dogs occurred about:<n>A.65,000 to no later than 48,000 years ago<n>B.45,000 to no later than 38,000 years ago<n>C.35,000 to no later than 18,000 years ago<n>D.15,000 to no later than 10,000 years ago[SEP]C
+The first hominids could be described as:<n>A.quadrupedal knappers.<n>B.quadrupedal pongids.<n>C.bipedal apes.<n>D.bipedal quadrupeds.[SEP]C
+The undersea chasm between New Guinea/Australia and Java/Borneo is called the __________.<n>A.Wallace Trench<n>B.Sahul Passage<n>C.Beringia Abyss<n>D.Bering Strait[SEP]A
+Evidence has been found at the Asikli Höyük site in Central Turkey for the domestication of which species within a few centuries after 10,400 years ago?<n>A.sheep<n>B.cattle<n>C.dogs<n>D.chickens[SEP]A
+Which of the following is NOT true of the main Indus Valley cities?<n>A.A citadel was built on the western margin of each city.<n>B.The "upper cities" were encompassed by monumental walls.<n>C.The blocks of residences were added haphazardly as needed.<n>D.The bricks used in the houses were a consistent size and shape.[SEP]C
+The Younger Dryas was:<n>A.a warming period at the end of the Pleistocene.<n>B.a period of glacial expansion between 12,900 and 11,600 years ago.<n>C.a period of glacial retreat between 10,900 and 9,000 years ago.<n>D.a period of environmental change that caused humans to temporarily abandon much of northern Europe.[SEP]B
+Which of the following was described as “the slow agency of existing causes”?<n>A.natural selection<n>B.catastrophism<n>C.uniformitarianism<n>D.unilineal evolution[SEP]C
+Virtually all of the crops important in the European Neolithic:<n>A.were domesticated at the same time at communal farms.<n>B.were domesticated before groups became sedentary.<n>C.were independently domesticated in Europe<n>D.were imported from other regions.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is NOT an innovation of the Mesolithic?<n>A.canoes<n>B.domestication of animals<n>C.European use of bow and arrow<n>D.crop irrigation systems[SEP]D
+Pizarro was able to subdue the entire Inca empire largely because:<n>A.his horses and guns frightened the Incas into submission.<n>B.he was such a brilliant military strategist.<n>C.the empire had never won the allegiance of the peoples it had conquered.<n>D.he arrived with a superior force of more than 80,000 soldiers.[SEP]C
+The transition from food gathering to a total reliance on agriculture:<n>A.happened everywhere except in South America.<n>B.took thousands of years.<n>C.took hundreds of thousands of years.<n>D.always required careful planning.[SEP]B
+Between 1.4 million and 400,000 years ago, hand axe technology:<n>A.steadily improved.<n>B.steadily worsened.<n>C.changed only slightly.<n>D.evolved into a more sophisticated technology.[SEP]C
+Artifacts must be carefully exposed and initially left in place in order to record:<n>A.the composition of the artifacts and surrounding soil.<n>B.spatial contexts and associations.<n>C.the possible presence of faunal assemblages or bone.<n>D.the presence, morphology, and species of surrounding pollen.[SEP]B
+During which time frame is there evidence for anatomically modern Homo sapiens?<n>A.800,000 to 10,000 years ago<n>B.800,000 years ago to present<n>C.400,000 years ago to present<n>D.200,000 to present[SEP]D
+Specialization of labor:<n>A.can only exist in a society which produces a food surplus.<n>B.allows for sophisticated craft work (e.g., weaving, metalworking, pottery manufacturing).<n>C.is a characteristic of civilization.<n>D.all the above.[SEP]D
+The Maya derived their writing and mathematics from the:<n>A.Mesopotamians.<n>B.Chavin.<n>C.Chinese.<n>D.Olmec.[SEP]D
+Which foods are included in the triad of plants that provided the subsistence base for indigenous New World civilizations?<n>A.maize, beans, and squash<n>B.maize, lentils, and wheat<n>C.rice, beans, and squash<n>D.yams, maize, and millet[SEP]A
+What is the name of the largest structure at Teotihuacán and around how many platform monuments and pyramids were built there?<n>A.Pyramid of the Moon; 250<n>B.Temple of the Feathered Serpent; 400<n>C.Pyramid of the Sun; 600<n>D.Temple of the Inscriptions; 700[SEP]C
+When did the Inca begin their military expansion across South America?<n>A.200 A.D.<n>B.900 A.D.<n>C.1450 A.D.<n>D.1650 A.D.[SEP]C
+During the Pleistocene era, the islands of Java, Sumatra, Bali, and Borneo formed ___________. The landmass connecting Australia, New Guinea, and Tasmania was called ___________.<n>A.Sunda; Wallacea<n>B.Wallacea; Beringia<n>C.Beringia; Sahul<n>D.Sunda; Sahul[SEP]D
+The reason that archaeologists long suggested that the walls of Great Zimbabwe could not have been built by an indigenous sub-Saharan people was that:<n>A.the architecture was clearly built by Egyptians.<n>B.historical records show that it was constructed by early Dutch settlers.<n>C.symbolic motifs incorporated into the walls indicate that they were built by Indian traders.<n>D.they thought sub-Saharan Africans were incapable of such achievements.[SEP]D
+What was a unifying element to the Chavin culture?<n>A.artistic styles incorporating the same creatures<n>B.woven textiles displaying common motifs<n>C.worked metal objects<n>D.all the above[SEP]D
+Which of the following indicates a primary context?<n>A.a landfill where refuse from an entire community has accumulated<n>B.artifacts, ecofacts, and bone exposed on the ground surface by erosion<n>C.the existence of a cache or collection of artifacts found where they were left<n>D.all of the above[SEP]C
+Which of the following is NOT one of Joseph Tainter's proposed causes for the collapse of ancient civilizations?<n>A.resource depletion<n>B.economic decline<n>C.elite mismanagement<n>D.epidemic disease[SEP]D
+The archaeological remains of foundations at Pilfershire were found:<n>A.by taking a walk in the woods.<n>B.by carefully excavating an entire region.<n>C.using satellite imaging.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]A
+The influence of the Tiwanaku was eclipsed by the _________ culture, to the north and west.<n>A.Moche<n>B.Inca<n>C.Wari<n>D.Aztec[SEP]C
+How do archaeologists characterize the peoples who built monumental structures at Göbekli Tepe, Watson Brake, and Poverty Point?<n>A.agriculturalists<n>B.affluent foragers<n>C.archaic states<n>D.primitive civilizations[SEP]B
+What is believed to be the reason for the development of a complex society at Caral in South America?<n>A.the need to collect large quantities of shellfish<n>B.the construction of canals for irrigation<n>C.the building of the Piramide Mayor<n>D.the excavating work to produce the sunken plazas[SEP]B
+The fossil evidence indicates that by 1.8 million years ago, a new hominid known as _______ had evolved.<n>A.Homo habilis<n>B.Homo erectus<n>C.Homo sapiens<n>D.Australopithecus afarensis[SEP]B
+The __________ tradition features finely made, leaf-shaped stone blades. The __________ tradition, which followed behind it, emphasizes bone and antler work.<n>A.Solutrean; Magdelanian<n>B.Gravettian; Solutrean<n>C.Magdelanian; Aurignacian<n>D.Aurignacian; Gravettian.[SEP]A
+The fossils originally known as Sinanthropus pekinensis or “Peking Man” are now classified as:<n>A.Homo floresiensis.<n>B.Homo sapiens.<n>C.Homo erectus.<n>D.Homo habilis.[SEP]C
+How does anthropology differ from other social sciences such as economics and sociology?<n>A.Anthropology is holistic and integrative in its approach.<n>B.Anthropology is less holistic and more theoretical in its approach.<n>C.Anthropology tends to focus on specific topics in history.<n>D.Anthropology is more narrowly focused than the other social sciences.[SEP]A
+In periods of great difficulty and stress, it appears that the Minoans __________ in order to appease the gods.<n>A.sacrificed adults and occasionally children<n>B.burnt their own houses to the ground<n>C.fasted for long periods<n>D.abstained from sexual relations[SEP]A
+Which of the following is true about the first apes?<n>A.There were a far greater number of genera than today.<n>B.They flourished in a broader area of the world than today's apes.<n>C.Some ancient species were larger than today's apes.<n>D.All of the above.[SEP]D
+For 99% of human history, people have depended solely on _________ for their subsistence.<n>A.collecting plants<n>B.fishing<n>C.agriculture<n>D.foraging[SEP]D
+The possibility that Homo erectus possessed an aesthetic sense and may have created “art” is suggested by:<n>A.the size of their brains, with a mean brain size slightly larger than modern humans.<n>B.cave paintings and elaborate burials with numerous grave goods at the Trinil site.<n>C.recovery of a shell at the Trinil site with an intentionally engraved series of lines.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]C
+When did Mohenjo-daro develop into a complex urban center?<n>A.during the Early Shang Dynasty, from 1,000 to 400 B.P.<n>B.during the Qin Dynasty, from 3,500 to 3,000 B.P.<n>C.during the Mature Harappan period, from 4,500 to 4,000 B.P.<n>D.during the Early Harappan period, from 8,500 to 6,000 B.P.[SEP]C
+Which of the following best describes an anthropologist who studies the human skeleton in order to solve crimes?<n>A.forensic anthropologist<n>B.historical archaeologist<n>C.paleoanthropologist<n>D.linguistic anthropologist[SEP]A
+Which of the following was the first city and what was the estimated population?<n>A.Nagada, 5,000 people<n>B.Uruk, 10,000 people<n>C.Knossos, 20,000 people<n>D.Giza, 200,000 people[SEP]B
+The epoch in which our earliest non-human primate relatives made their first appearance is called the:<n>A.Miocene.<n>B.Pliocene.<n>C.Triassic.<n>D.Cambrian.[SEP]A
+In comparison to Homo habilis, what gave Homo erectus the ability to migrate so far, so fast?<n>A.neoteny<n>B.intelligence<n>C.bipedalism<n>D.microcephaly[SEP]B
+At its height, only about _______ of the Incan empire was composed of ethnic Inca.<n>A.1 percent<n>B.10 percent<n>C.30 percent<n>D.50 percent[SEP]A
+By analyzing the levels of 13C in bones, researchers can establish whether an individual ate:<n>A.mostly grains or mostly nuts and fruits.<n>B.mostly meat or mostly vegetables.<n>C.no dairy or lots of dairy.<n>D.a certain type of honey produced only in sub-Saharan Africa.[SEP]A
+To which primate are humans most closely related?<n>A.chimpanzees<n>B.gorillas<n>C.orangutans<n>D.gibbons[SEP]A
+A more accurate calibration curve and conversion for radiocarbon dating can be derived from:<n>A.dendrochronology.<n>B.coins recovered from ancient shipwrecks.<n>C.written records.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]A
+Homo erectus is characterized by:<n>A.a sophisticated stone-tool technology, cooperative hunting, and the controlled use of fire.<n>B.a primitive stone-tool technology, the sophisticated use of wood to construct shelters, and the earliest known gardening.<n>C.cooperative hunting, the controlled use of fire, and elaborate burials with many grave goods.<n>D.a primitive stone-tool technology, the first evidence for fishing, and the construction of stone buildings.[SEP]A
+Indus Valley civilization is unmatched in comparison to other early civilizations in terms of what?<n>A.the height and size of its monumental architecture<n>B.the amount and frequency of violence<n>C.the degree of urban planning<n>D.the amount of surplus wheat that was produced for storage[SEP]C
+Which is true of the origins of Minoan civilization?<n>A.Crete was colonized by the Egyptians, who called the island "Minoa."<n>B.Early humans crossed a land bridge to Crete around 150,000 B.P. and gradually became Minoans.<n>C.Crete was populated by Greeks and others, but Minoan culture was a local development.<n>D.Cretan culture was a mix of Egyptian and Mesopotamian elements.[SEP]C
+Archaeology differs from pseudoscientific speculation and fantasies about ancient extraterrestrials because:<n>A.archaeology is not confined to evidence or the scientific method.<n>B.archaeologists are not interested in science fiction and do not actually know much about the ancient past.<n>C.archaeologists have actually solved all of the mysteries and controversies about the past.<n>D.archaeologists follow the scientific method and are constrained by evidence or lack of evidence.[SEP]D
+The idea that cultures change through time in relation to their environments, along many different paths, is known as:<n>A.unilineal evolution.<n>B.environmental uniformitarianism.<n>C.multicultural adaptation.<n>D.multilineal evolution.[SEP]D
+What does Australia have in common with the rest of the world during the Holocene epoch?<n>A.drastic environmental changes<n>B.exploitation of new food resources<n>C.a growth in cultural diversity<n>D.the independent domestication of wheat and cattle[SEP]C
+The Chimu civilization was one of the ___________ kingdoms of the ancient New World.<n>A.richest<n>B.strongest<n>C.largest<n>D.highest[SEP]C
+Monk's Mound, at the Mississippian center of Cahokia, served as:<n>A.a lookout or fire tower.<n>B.a meeting ground for egalitarian tribes.<n>C.a burial monument.<n>D.the base for one or more important buildings.[SEP]D
+The peak of Minoan civilization, from 3650 to 3420 B.P., was bracketed by what two events?<n>A.the founding of the Minos dynasty and the invasion of the Mycenaeans<n>B.an earthquake and a volcanic eruption<n>C.the discovery of bronze on the island, and the replacement of bronze by iron<n>D.the invasion of Troy, and the surrender to the Romans[SEP]B
+Which of the following is the name of the stone blade exhibiting a fluted point on both faces and associated with extinct elephants?<n>A.Thule<n>B.Lapita<n>C.Dorset<n>D.Clovis[SEP]D
+Levallois technology involved a shift in emphasis from:<n>A.producing core tools to producing flakes.<n>B.producing pottery to producing clothing.<n>C.producing arrows to producing spear points.<n>D.larger, duller axes to smaller, sharper ones.[SEP]A
+To which species does Lucy belong?<n>A.Homo habilis<n>B.Australopithecus afarensis<n>C.Homo sapiens<n>D.Australopithecus robustus[SEP]B
+Which of the following is an example of parietal art?<n>A.beadwork<n>B.inscribed bone<n>C.ivory statues<n>D.cave paintings[SEP]D
+When did the florescence of Ancestral Puebloan culture occur?<n>A.5,000 years ago<n>B.just after A.D. 1000<n>C.before A.D. 1000<n>D.2,000 years ago[SEP]B
+Which of the following is more complex than a tribe but less complex than a state?<n>A.chiefdom<n>B.archaic state<n>C.egalitarian society<n>D.democratic state[SEP]A
+The Upper Paleolithic is generally associated with:<n>A.new and improved stone tool technologies.<n>B.a broadening of the subsistence base.<n>C.larger sites with increased populations.<n>D.all of the above.[SEP]D
+The native peoples of the northwest coast of North America were:<n>A.maize agriculturalists.<n>B.simple foragers.<n>C.affluent foragers.<n>D.conquered by the Aztec.[SEP]C
+Archaeological evidence for the collapse of civilizations suggests which of the following is the most important variable?<n>A.whether warfare can be ended<n>B.changing environmental conditions<n>C.how societies respond to challenges<n>D.the ability of bureaucracies to store food and feed its people[SEP]C
+Which culture was centered in the Ohio River valley around 2,800 years ago?<n>A.the Kwakiutl<n>B.the Mogollon<n>C.the Sinagua<n>D.the Adena[SEP]D
+Which culture was centered in the Ohio River valley around 2,800 years ago?<n>A.the Adena<n>B.the Mogollon<n>C.the Kwakiutl<n>D.the Sinagua[SEP]A
+The pharaoh ruled a population of ________, of which _________ were farmers.<n>A.100,000; 25%<n>B.1,000,000; 50%<n>C.3,000,000; 75%<n>D.5,000,000; 100%[SEP]C
+The key factor in the survival and success of anatomically modern human beings was:<n>A.their ability to control fire and produce art.<n>B.their ability to interbreed with other hominids.<n>C.their ability to hunt large mammals.<n>D.their ability to adapt.[SEP]D
+A proposed explanation for some phenomenon that may be derived initially from empirical observation through a process called induction is a:<n>A.deduction.<n>B.theory.<n>C.hypothesis.<n>D.scientific method.[SEP]C
+The development of civilization in Mesopotamia is associated with the _______, during the ______.<n>A.first writing; Amratian Period<n>B.first cities; Uruk Period]<n>C.first religious specialists; New Temple Period<n>D.first permanent military; Nagada I Period[SEP]B
+Which of the following is the Pleistocene ice mass in North America centered in the Rocky Mountains?<n>A.Beringia<n>B.Laurentide<n>C.Cordilleran<n>D.McKenzie Corridor[SEP]C
+On which continent are most of the Venus figurines found?<n>A.Europe<n>B.Africa<n>C.Asia<n>D.Australia[SEP]A
+The ability of humans to live in different environments, from Arctic tundra to tropical forests, is made possible by:<n>A.specific biological adaptations to each new habitat.<n>B.the rapid evolution of novel physical characteristics, which allows for movement into a new geographic range.<n>C.intelligence and cultural adaptations.<n>D.genetic changes and racial differences.[SEP]C
+Which of the following refers to the systematic study of the earth's layers?<n>A.primatology<n>B.stratigraphy<n>C.weathering<n>D.archaeology[SEP]B
+The Aztec Empire was based on the systematic expansion of:<n>A.tribute in the form of gold, jade, feathers, cloth, and jewels.<n>B.oppressive social and religious control based on military conquest.<n>C.ceramic production, a distinctive architectural style, and artistic expression.<n>D.religious beliefs that required extensive and escalating human sacrifice.[SEP]A
+All of the following statements are true of the walls of the central complex of Great Zimbabwe EXCEPT:<n>A.they were built of over 1 million granite bricks.<n>B.they exhibit sophisticated masonry.<n>C.they stood 40 feet tall in places.<n>D.the mortar that holds them together was made from ground up ocean shells.[SEP]D
+How can the paleoanthropologist determine if a species is bipedal?<n>A.The structure of the innominate, including the ilium and ischium<n>B.The position of the foramen magnum<n>C.The absence of a divergent big toe<n>D.All the above[SEP]D
+Which dating technique is based on the patterns of tree-ring growth?<n>A.radiocarbon dating<n>B.dendrochronology<n>C.paleomagnetic dating<n>D.fission-track dating[SEP]B
+Which area is home to the tradition of making stone tools from chipped pebbles, called Hoabinhian?<n>A.Australia<n>B.North America<n>C.Europe<n>D.Asia[SEP]D
+The Pleistocene epoch lasted until how long ago?<n>A.1,000,000 years<n>B.100,000 years<n>C.10,000 years<n>D.1,000 years[SEP]C
+Which of the following is the last to be occupied by human beings?<n>A.New Guinea<n>B.Australia<n>C.New Zealand<n>D.Timor[SEP]C
+Based on the available evidence, which of the following evolved first among hominids?<n>A.bipedal locomotion<n>B.language<n>C.a larger cranium and brain size larger than 1000 cc<n>D.Oldowan stone tools[SEP]A
+The "grandmother effect" refers to:<n>A.the premature aging of many Paleolithic women.<n>B.the shift in cave paintings that took place as older women began to express themselves.<n>C.the decrease in child mortality associated with the presence of older generations.<n>D.the tendency of feminist archaeologists to question male prejudice in the field.[SEP]C
+Why were the elite of state societies so conspicuous in their consumption?<n>A.Democracy and egalitarian states had not yet evolved.<n>B.A monetary value was not placed on material possessions, making things effectively worthless.<n>C.The elite had not yet been introduced to capitalism and so wasted their wealth on monuments and possessions.<n>D.Monuments and possessions were used as symbols to reinforce the inequalities on which state societies are based.[SEP]D
+Archaeological evidence for the production of cheese and yogurt in Europe suggests that dairying became an important part of subsistence by ______ years ago, with _______ providing an adaptive advantage.<n>A.10,000; artificial selection for certain varieties of cheese<n>B.7,500; the lactase persistence mutation<n>C.5,500; domesticated cattle<n>D.3,500; certain strains of lactose-free cheese and yogurt[SEP]B
+The presence of caribou bones found near the Hudson River valley in New York from a site dated 10,000 years ago implies:<n>A.that the main food source was caribou meat.<n>B.a much colder climate during that time.<n>C.that caribou were imported into the United States from Canada.<n>D.that the people who lived at this site had high cholesterol.[SEP]B
+Experiments with stone spear points made to replicate those artifacts found at the Kathu Pan site in South Africa suggest that Homo erectus:<n>A.made and used spears with stone projectile points for hunting 500,000 years ago.<n>B.made and used spears with stone projectile points for hunting more than 3 million years ago.<n>C.did not use spears with stone projectile points, but probably hunted and caught fish with wooden and bone tools.<n>D.made stone spear points for use as weapons, but not for hunting.[SEP]A
+What is the date of the first evidence of the use of metals in South America?<n>A.1200 B.P.<n>B.3100 B.P.<n>C.5100 B.P.<n>D.6200 B.P.[SEP]B
+Among the Inca, human sacrifice was preceded by:<n>A.ritual starvation, torture, and blood sacrifice.<n>B.elite-sponsored feasts in which captives of war were beheaded.<n>C.improved diet, the use of coca leaves, and consumption of maize beer.<n>D.communal feasts and the torture of captives to be sacrificed.[SEP]C

datasets/MMLU/professional_accounting.txt

+You bought a limousine for $98,000 and are planning to rent it for weddings, ceremonies and parties at $245 per hour. If you estimate the car will be hired for 2 hours a day on average, with daily costs at about $50, what is the estimated yearly yield on your investment if you work all year round, i.e. every day of the year, including any festivities and weekends?<n>A.164%<n>B.1.64%<n>C.0.45%<n>D.183%[SEP]A
+Arno Co. did not record a credit purchase of merchandise made prior to year end. However the merchandise was correctly included in the year-end physical inventory. What effect did the omission of reporting the purchase of merchandise have on Arno's balance sheet at year end? Assets Liabilities<n>A.No effect No effect<n>B.No effect Understated<n>C.Understated No effect<n>D.Understated Understated[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements about audit sampling risks is correct for a nonissuer?<n>A.Nonsampling risk arises from the possibility that, when a substantive test is restricted to a sample, conclusions might be different than if the auditor had tested each item in the population.<n>B.Nonsampling risk can arise because an auditor failed to recognize misstatements.<n>C.Sampling risk is derived from the uncertainty in applying audit procedures to specific risks.<n>D.Sampling risk includes the possibility of selecting audit procedures that are not appropriate to achieve the specific objective.[SEP]B
+Which of the following procedures would an auditor generally perform regarding subsequent events?<n>A.Inspect inventory items that were ordered before the year end but arrived after the year end.<n>B.Test internal control activities that were previously reported to management as inadequate.<n>C.Review the client's cutoff bank statements for several months after the year end.<n>D.Compare the latest available interim financial statements with the statements being audited.[SEP]D
+The FASB makes changes to the Accounting Standards Codification by issuing<n>A.Accounting Standards Updates.<n>B.Emerging Issues Task Force Releases.<n>C.Statements of Financial Accounting Standards.<n>D.Staff Technical Bulletins.[SEP]A
+An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project’s NPV?<n>A.−$3<n>B.−$27<n>C.$3<n>D.$500[SEP]C
+On July 1 year 7 Dean Co. issued at a premium bonds with a due date of July 1 year 12. Dean incorrectly used the straight-line method instead of the effective interest method to amortize the premium. How were the following amounts affected by the error at June 30 year 12? Bond carrying Retained amount earnings<n>A.Overstated Understated<n>B.Understated Overstated<n>C.Overstated No effect<n>D.No effect No effect[SEP]D
+What is the price of a three-year bond (face value $100), paying 5% coupons, with a yield of 6%?<n>A.$100<n>B.$104.29<n>C.$96.71<n>D.$97.33[SEP]D
+A company recently moved to a new building. The old building is being actively marketed for sale, and the company expects to complete the sale in four months. Each of the following statements is correct regarding the old building, except:<n>A.It will be reclassified as an asset held for sale.<n>B.It will be classified as a current asset.<n>C.It will no longer be depreciated.<n>D.It will be valued at historical cost.[SEP]D
+Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson’s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson’s individual return?<n>A.$28,000<n>B.$132,000<n>C.$160,000<n>D.$188,000[SEP]C
+An investment will pay out $10 p.a. forever. What is that investment worth if the market discount rate is 5%?<n>A.$100<n>B.$2<n>C.$500<n>D.$200[SEP]D
+Smith has an adjusted gross income (AGI) of $120,000 without taking into consideration $40,000 of losses from rental real estate activities. Smith actively participates in the rental real estate activities. What amount of the rental losses may Smith deduct in determining taxable income?<n>A.$0<n>B.$15,000<n>C.$20,000<n>D.$40,000[SEP]B
+Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm's quality control policies and procedures applicable to the firm's accounting and auditing practice?<n>A.Engagement performance.<n>B.Risk analysis.<n>C.Safeguarding of assets.<n>D.Information processing.[SEP]A
+A company predicted that it would manufacture 10,000 units of finished goods during March. The direct labor standards indicated that each unit of finished goods requires 2.4 direct labor hours at a standard wage of $20 per hour, totaling $48.00 per finished good unit. During March, the company actually made 9,000 units of finished goods. Production used 2.5 labor hours per finished unit, and the company actually paid $21 per hour, totaling $52.50 per unit of finished product. What amount is the company's direct labor rate variance for March?<n>A.$18,000<n>B.$22,500<n>C.$25,000<n>D.$40,500[SEP]B
+The full-employment gross domestic product is $1.3 trillion, and the actual gross domestic product is $1.2 trillion. The marginal propensity to consume is 0.8. When inflation is ignored, what increase in government expenditures is necessary to produce full employment?<n>A.$100 billion<n>B.$80 billion<n>C.$20 billion<n>D.$10 billion[SEP]C
+Which of the following types of audit evidence provides the least assurance of reliability?<n>A.Receivable confirmations received from the client’s customers.<n>B.Prenumbered receiving reports completed by the client’s employees.<n>C.Prior months’ bank statements obtained from the client.<n>D.Municipal property tax bills prepared in the client’s name.[SEP]B
+During year 2 Pipp Co. incurred the following costs to develop and produce a routine low-risk computer software product: Completion of detailed program design $10000 Costs incurred for coding and testing to establish technological feasibility $15000 Other coding and testing costs incurred after establishment of technological feasibility $44000 In Pipp's December 31 year 2 balance sheet what amount should be capitalized as software cost?<n>A.$10,000<n>B.$25,000<n>C.$44,000<n>D.59000[SEP]C
+During an engagement to compile the financial statements of a nonissuer an accountant becomes aware that management had stated land at appraised value and that if GAAP had been followed both the land account and stockholders' equity would have been decreased by $1 million a material amount. The accountant decides to modify the standard compilation report because management will not revise the financial statements. Under these circumstances the accountant should<n>A.Issue either an adverse opinion or a qualified opinion depending on materiality because of the departure from GAAP.<n>B.Add a separate paragraph to the accountant's report that restricts the distribution of the financial statements to “internal use only.”<n>C.Add a separate paragraph to the accountant's report that discloses the departure from GAAP and its effects on the financial statements.<n>D.Add a separate paragraph to the accountant's report that explains the underlying purpose of recording assets at historical cost.[SEP]C
+Under the Sales Article of the UCC, which of the following circumstances best describes how the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose arises in a sale of goods transaction?<n>A.The buyer is purchasing the goods for a particular purpose and is relying on the seller’s skill or judgment to select suitable goods.<n>B.The buyer is purchasing the goods for a particular purpose and the seller is a merchant in such goods.<n>C.The seller knows the particular purpose for which the buyer will use the goods and knows the buyer is relying on the seller’s skill or judgment to select suitable goods.<n>D.The seller knows the particular purpose for which the buyer will use the goods and the seller is a merchant in such goods.[SEP]C
+Before accepting an audit engagement a CPA should evaluate whether conditions exist that raise questions as to the integrity of management. Which of the following conditions most likely would raise such questions?<n>A.There are significant differences between the entity's forecasted financial statements and the financial statements to be audited.<n>B.The CPA will not be permitted to have access to sensitive information regarding the salaries of senior management.<n>C.There have been substantial inventory write-offs just before the year end in each of the past four years.<n>D.The CPA becomes aware of the existence of related party transactions while reading the draft financial statements.[SEP]B
+In an e-commerce environment that requires that the information technology (IT) system be available on a continuous basis, more emphasis will be placed on which of the following aspects of the planning than in a traditional organization?<n>A.Maintain appropriate written source documents so the data can be re-entered if it is lost or compromised<n>B.Maintain redundant systems for instant availability to assure the flow of transactions<n>C.Review additional expenses to obtain the required amount of business interruption insurance coverage for the organization<n>D.Assure that appropriate data backups are stored in an off-site location[SEP]B
+Spark Co. buys cordless phones for $125 each and sells them for $200 each. Spark pays a sales commission of $25 per phone sold and monthly fixed costs are $3000. Assuming Spark desired a profit of 10% of sales how many units must Spark sell?<n>A.600<n>B.400<n>C.200<n>D.100[SEP]D
+Inherent risk and control risk differ from detection risk in which of the following ways?<n>A.Inherent risk and control risk are calculated by the client.<n>B.Inherent risk and control risk exist independently of the audit.<n>C.Inherent risk and control risk are controlled by the auditor.<n>D.Inherent risk and control risk exist as a result of the auditor’s judgment about materiality.[SEP]B
+Ultra Co. uses a periodic inventory system. The following are inventory transactions for the month of January: 1/1 Beginning inventory 20000 units at $13 1/20 Purchase 30000 units at $15 1/23 Purchase 40000 units at $17 1/31 Sales at $20 per unit 50000 units Ultra uses the LIFO method to determine the value of its inventory. What amount should Ultra report as cost of goods sold on its income statement for the month of January?<n>A.$710,000<n>B.$750,000<n>C.$830,000<n>D.1000000[SEP]C
+On day 1, Jackson, a merchant, mailed Sands a signed letter that contained an offer to sell Sands 500 electric fans at $10 per fan. The letter was received by Sands on day 3. The letter contained a promise not to revoke the offer but no expiration date. On day 4, Jackson mailed Sands a revocation of the offer to sell the fans. Sands received the revocation on day 6. On day 7, Sands mailed Jackson an acceptance of the offer. Jackson received the acceptance on day 9. Under the Sales Article of the UCC, was a contract formed?<n>A.No contract was formed because the offer failed to state an expiration date.<n>B.No contract was formed because Sands received the revocation of the offer before Sands accepted the offer<n>C.A contract was formed on the day Jackson received Sands’ acceptance<n>D.A contract was formed on the day Sands mailed the acceptance to Jackson[SEP]D
+Elan Co. has two employees. Each employee receives two weeks of paid vacation each year. Vacation rights accumulate. One employee whose weekly salary is $600 took a two-week vacation during the year but the other employee who earns $800 per week took no vacation during the year. In its year-end financial statements what amount should Elan report as vacation liability and expense? Liability Expense<n>A.$1600 $1200<n>B.$1600 $2800<n>C.$0 $1200<n>D.$0 $2800[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Federal Unemployment Tax Act?<n>A.An employee who resigns regardless of cause is eligible for unemployment benefits.<n>B.The federal unemployment system is funded by both employer and employee taxes.<n>C.The Act is intended to assist workers who are permanently out of work and need assistance in supporting themselves.<n>D.The unemployment insurance system is administered by the states through their employment laws.[SEP]D
+When the AQR partnership was formed, partner Acre contributed land with a fair market value of $100,000 and a tax basis of $60,000 in exchange for a one-third interest in the partnership. The AQR partnership agreement specifies that each partner will share equally in the partnership’s profits and losses. During its first year of operation, AQR sold the land to an unrelated third party for $160,000. What is the proper tax treatment of the sale?<n>A.Each partner reports a capital gain of $33,333.<n>B.The entire gain of $100,000 must be specifically allocated to Acre.<n>C.The first $40,000 of gain is allocated to Acre, and the remaining gain of $60,000 is shared equally by the other two partners.<n>D.The first $40,000 of gain is allocated to Acre, and the remaining gain of $60,000 is shared equally by all the partners in the partnership.[SEP]D
+The purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for deciding whether to accept or continue a client relationship is to<n>A.Provide reasonable assurance that personnel are adequately trained to fulfill their responsibilities.<n>B.Minimize the likelihood of associating with clients whose management lacks integrity.<n>C.Document the matters that are required to be communicated to the audit committee.<n>D.Enhance the auditor's understanding of the client's business and its industry.[SEP]B
+What is the price of a five-year bond (face value $100) that pays no coupons, if its yield is 4%?<n>A.$100<n>B.$85<n>C.$82<n>D.$75[SEP]C
+Vital Corp. is an accrual-basis calendar-year C corporation. Its year 2 reported book income before federal income taxes was $500000. Included in that amount were the following items: Year 1 state franchise tax refund $50000 Municipal bond interest income 7500 What should be the amount of Vital's year 2 taxable income as reconciled on Vital's Schedule M-1 of Form 1120 U.S. Corporation Income Tax Return?<n>A.$500,000<n>B.$492,500<n>C.$450,000<n>D.442500[SEP]B
+A practitioner is engaged to express an opinion on management’s assertion that the square footage of a warehouse offered for sale is 150,000 square feet. The practitioner should refer to which of the following sources for professional guidance?<n>A.Statements on Auditing Standards<n>B.Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements<n>C.Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services<n>D.Statements on Standards for Consulting Services[SEP]B
+Swift Co. has identified three operating segments that may require separate disclosure in Swift's general purpose financial statements for the year ended December 31 year 2. Information for year 2 follows: Segment (in thousands) A B C Total Reported revenue $ 42 $ 121 $ 14 $ 177 Reported profit(loss) $ 12 $ 65 $ (3) $ 74 Assets $ 470 $ 800 $ 80 $ 1350 Which of Swift's segments are required to be separately disclosed in its December 31 year 2 financial statements?<n>A.A and B only.<n>B.A and C only.<n>C.B and C only.<n>D.A B and C.[SEP]A
+When there has been a change in accounting principles, but the effect of the change on the comparability of the financial statements is not material, the auditor should<n>A.Not refer to the change in the auditor’s report.<n>B.Refer to the note in the financial statements that discusses the change.<n>C.Refer to the change in an emphasis-of-matter paragraph.<n>D.Explicitly state whether the change conforms with GAAP.[SEP]A
+Long was a purchasing agent for Frost, a sole proprietor. Long had express authority to place purchase orders with Frost's suppliers. Long conducted business on the Internet and had little contact with Frost. After Frost was declared incompetent in a judicial proceeding, Long placed an order with Grant Corp. on Frost's behalf. Both Long and Grant were unaware of Frost's incompetence. Will Frost or Frost's legal representative be liable to Grant?<n>A.Yes, because Long's agency survived Frost's incompetence.<n>B.Yes, because the order was valid regardless of Frost's incompetence.<n>C.No, because Grant dealt only with Long.<n>D.No, because Long did not have authority to enter into the contract.[SEP]D
+Which of the following factors should an external auditor obtain updated information about when assessing an internal auditor’s competence?<n>A.The reporting status of the internal auditor within the organization.<n>B.The educational level and professional experiences of the internal auditor.<n>C.Whether policies prohibit the internal auditor from auditing areas where relatives are employed.<n>D.Whether the board of directors, audit committee, or owner-manager oversees employment decisions related to the internal auditor.[SEP]B
+Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform before the balance sheet? date?<n>A.Confirm with client's lawyer that all litigation probable of assertion has been disclosed to the auditor.<n>B.Obtain an understanding of the client's internal control activities.<n>C.Determine whether there are any liens or encumbrances on assets that have been pledged as collateral.<n>D.Consider the client's plans and ability to meet imminent purchase commitments and cash flow obligations.[SEP]B
+Securities A, B and C have an expected return of respectively 7%, 12% and 5%. What is the expected return of an equal weighted portfolio composed of Securities A and C?<n>A.10%<n>B.8.50%<n>C.6%<n>D.12%[SEP]C
+Lei-Feng, Inc.'s $100 par value preferred stock just paid its $10 per share annual dividend. The preferred stock has a current market price of $96 a share. The firm's marginal tax rate (combined federal and state) is 40 percent, and the firm plans to maintain its current capital structure relationship into the future. The component cost of preferred stock to Lei-Feng, Inc. would be closest to .<n>A.6 percent<n>B.6.25 percent<n>C.10 percent<n>D.10.4 percent[SEP]D
+In the current year Poplar City paid $5000 interest and $20000 principal on its outstanding general obligation bonds. The payment was made from a debt service fund using cash transferred earlier the same year from the general fund. How should the city report the expenditures? General fund Debt service fund Permanent fund<n>A.$25000 $25000 $0<n>B.$0 $25000 $20000<n>C.$25000 $5000 $0<n>D.$0 $25000 $0[SEP]D
+A company exchanged land with an appraised value of $50,000 and an original cost of $20,000 for machinery with a fair value of $55,000. Assuming that the transaction has commercial substance, what is the gain on the exchange?<n>A.$0<n>B.$5,000<n>C.$30,000<n>D.$35,000[SEP]C
+An investment project cost $1 million to undertake and will deliver $2 million in five years’ time. The discount rate is 10%. What is the project’s NPV?<n>A.$1,000,000<n>B.$300,000<n>C.$2,000,000<n>D.$242,000[SEP]D
+Brown cosigned Royal's $50000 note to State Bank. If Royal is later adjudicated mentally incompetent what would be Brown's liability on the note?<n>A.Liable to pay State on the due date of the note.<n>B.Liable to pay State only if State first seeks payment from Royal.<n>C.Not liable to pay State because Royal's incompetency discharges Royal as a surety.<n>D.Not liable to pay State unless Brown was a compensated surety.[SEP]A
+On January 1, a company enters into an operating lease for office space and receives control of the property to make leasehold improvements. The company begins alterations to the property on March 1 and the company’s staff moves into the property on May 1. The monthly rental payments begin on July 1. The recognition of rental expense for the new offices should begin in which of the following months?<n>A.January.<n>B.March.<n>C.May.<n>D.July.[SEP]A
+Which of the following circumstances most likely would cause an auditor to suspect that there are material misstatements in an entity's financial statements?<n>A.There are unusual discrepancies between the entity's records and confirmation replies.<n>B.Management enforces strict budgetary controls over the entity's departmental supervisors.<n>C.Cash transactions are electronically processed and recorded leaving no paper audit trail.<n>D.The monthly bank reconciliation ordinarily includes several large outstanding checks.[SEP]A
+A taxpayer purchases and is the owner of an insurance contract on his own life and designates his two children as equal beneficiaries. The taxpayer makes all premium payments. How many gifts of property, if any, have been made for gift tax purposes?<n>A.Zero.<n>B.One.<n>C.Two.<n>D.Three.[SEP]A
+The City of Windemere decided to construct several large windmills to generate electrical power. The construction was financed through a general residential property tax levy for the next ten years. Utility revenues are intended to offset all expenses associated with the windmills. The land for the windmills was donated to the city by a local farmer. The land from the farmer should be reported in which fund type?<n>A.Special revenue.<n>B.Capital projects.<n>C.Enterprise.<n>D.Permanent.[SEP]C
+Decker a 62-year-old single individual sold his principal residence for the net amount of $500000 after all selling expenses. Decker bought the house 15 years ago and occupied it until it was sold. On the date of sale the house had a cost basis of $200000. Within six months Decker purchased a new house for $600000. What amount of gain should Decker recognize from the sale of the residence?<n>A.$0<n>B.$50,000<n>C.$175,000<n>D.300000[SEP]B
+To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?<n>A.Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.<n>B.Voting rights.<n>C.Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.<n>D.Guaranteed dividends.[SEP]C
+According to the SEC, members of an issuer’s audit committee may not<n>A.Establish procedures for employees to anonymously report fraud.<n>B.Be responsible for the compensation of any registered public accounting firm employed by the registrant to provide an audit report.<n>C.Accept any consulting, advisory, or other compensatory fee from the registrant for services other than as a member of the board.<n>D.Engage independent counsel as deemed necessary to carry out their duties.[SEP]C
+Order the following (risk, return) pairs from least to most favourable, assuming the perspective of a rational and risk-averse investor: (2,2),(2,3) and (4,2). Risk is measured in standard deviations and return in percentage. HINT: Imagine a scatter diagram with standard deviation on the x-axis and return on the y-axis.<n>A.(4,2),(2,2),(2,3)<n>B.(2,2),(2,3),(4,2)<n>C.(2,2),(4,2),(2,3)<n>D.(2,3),(2,2),(4,2)[SEP]A
+Sussman Co. prepared cash-basis financial statements for the month ended January 31. A summary of Sussman's January activities follows: Credit sales of $5600. Collections of $1900 relating to January credit sales. Accrued salaries of $1200. By what amount will Sussman's cash-basis income for the month ended January 31 increase as a result of restating these activities to the accrual basis of accounting?<n>A.$2,500<n>B.$3,700<n>C.$4,400<n>D.4900[SEP]A
+According to COSO, an effective approach to monitoring internal control involves each of the following steps, except<n>A.Establishing a foundation for monitoring.<n>B.Increasing the reliability of financial reporting and compliance with applicable laws and regulations.<n>C.Designing and executing monitoring procedures that are prioritized based on risks to achieve organizational objectives.<n>D.Assessing and reporting the results, including following up on corrective action where necessary.[SEP]B
+A bond issued on June 1, year 1, has interest payment dates of April 1 and October 1. Bond interest expense for the year ended December 31, year 1, is for a period of<n>A.Three months.<n>B.Four months.<n>C.Six months.<n>D.Seven months.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is an important consideration when deciding the nature of tests to use in a financial statement audit?<n>A.Tests of details typically provide a low level of assurance.<n>B.Analytical procedures are an inefficient means of obtaining assurance.<n>C.The procedures to be applied on a particular engagement are a matter of the auditor’s professional judgment.<n>D.The use of tests of controls should be considered without regard to the level of assurance required.[SEP]C
+On January 1 the partners' interest in capital profits and losses of Studio Partnership were: Partners Percentages Ross 15% Stone 35% Taylor 50% On April 9 Stone sold his entire interest to Taylor. For tax purposes which of the following statements is correct regarding Studio's status as a partnership?<n>A.Studio terminated as of January 1.<n>B.Studio terminated as of April 9.<n>C.Studio terminated as of December 31.<n>D.Studio did not terminate.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is a major difference between the just-in-time (JIT) and traditional approaches to manufacturing?<n>A.The JIT approach usually involves a large number of suppliers while traditional approaches usually involve only a small number of suppliers.<n>B.The JIT approach requires centralized purchasing while traditional approaches encourage purchasing decisions by production employees.<n>C.The JIT approach uses a push-through system while traditional approaches use a pull-through system.<n>D.The JIT approach operates with low inventory levels while traditional approaches may operate with high inventory levels.[SEP]D
+On January 1, year 1, a company purchased equipment for $100 million. The equipment consists of four major components, of which two components comprise 80% of the total cost and each has a 20-year useful life. The remaining two components have costs of $10 million each; one of them has a useful life of four years, and the other has a useful life of five years. The company applies the cost model to the equipment and uses the straight-line method of depreciation. Under IFRS, what is the depreciation expense for the year ended December 31, year 1?<n>A.$4,000,000<n>B.$5,000,000<n>C.$8,000,000<n>D.$8,500,000[SEP]D
+The fixed assets and related depreciation of a company are currently tracked on a password-protected spreadsheet. The information technology governance committee is designing a new enterprise-wide system and needs to determine whether the current fixed asset process should be included because the current system seems to be working properly. What long-term solution should the committee recommend?<n>A.Continuing to use the current spreadsheet process because there have been no issues in this area.<n>B.Developing a new fixed asset system to manage the assets and related depreciation<n>C.Purchasing a stand-alone fixed asset program for managing the assets and related depreciation<n>D.Adopting the fixed asset module of the new system for integration.[SEP]D
+In selecting an appropriate sample for a substantive test the auditor most likely would stratify the population if the<n>A.Auditor suspects that management fraud has occurred during the year.<n>B.Desired assessed level of control risk is less than the prior year.<n>C.Technique to be used is attribute sampling.<n>D.Auditor plans to give greater representation to large recorded amounts.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements is correct regarding a shareholder’s right to inspect corporate books and records? The right<n>A.Is absolute.<n>B.Is conditioned upon the demanding shareholder owning at least $5000 worth of stock.<n>C.Requires that the demand to inspect be for a proper purpose.<n>D.Exists only when fraud or illegality is alleged.[SEP]C
+Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?<n>A.Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.<n>B.Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.<n>C.Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.<n>D.Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.[SEP]A
+Star Co. is a retail store specializing in contemporary furniture. The following information is taken from Star's June budget: Sales $540000 Cost of goods sold 300000 Merchandise inventory–June 1 150000 Merchandise inventory–June 30 180000 Accounts payable for purchases–June 1 85000 Accounts payable for purchases–June 30 75000 What amount should Star budget for cash disbursements for June purchases?<n>A.$260,000<n>B.$280,000<n>C.$320,000<n>D.340000[SEP]D
+West is single has no dependents and does not itemize. West provides the following information regarding his current-year’s return: Long-term capital gain $15000 Percentage depletion in excess of property's adjusted basis 9000 Dividends from publicly-held companies 10000 What is the amount of West's AMT tax preference items?<n>A.$9,000<n>B.$19,000<n>C.$24,000<n>D.34000[SEP]A
+A company’s first IFRS reporting period is for the year ended December 31, year 2. While preparing the year 2 statement of financial position, management identified an error in which a $90,000 loss accrual was not recorded. $40,000 of the loss accrual related to a year 1 event and $50,000 related to a year 2 event. What amount of loss accrual should the company report in its December 31, year 1, IFRS statement of financial position?<n>A.$0<n>B.$40,000<n>C.$50,000<n>D.$90,000[SEP]B
+A project should be accepted if the present value of cash flows from the project is<n>A.Equal to the initial investment.<n>B.Less than the initial investment.<n>C.Greater than the initial investment.<n>D.Equal to zero.[SEP]C
+Gulde’s tax basis in Chyme Partnership was $26,000 at the time Gulde received a liquidating distribution of $12,000 cash and land with an adjusted basis to Chyme of $10,000 and a fair market value of $30,000. Chyme did not have unrealized receivables, appreciated inventory, or properties that had been contributed by its partners. What was the amount of Gulde’s basis in the land?<n>A.$0<n>B.$10,000<n>C.$14,000<n>D.$30,000[SEP]C
+During the year Verity Co. purchased $200000 of Otra Co. bonds at par and $50000 of U.S. Treasury bills. Verity classified the Otra bonds as available-for-sale securities and the Treasury bills as cash equivalents. In Verity's statement of cash flows what amount should it report as net cash used in investing activities?<n>A.$0<n>B.$150,000<n>C.$200,000<n>D.250000[SEP]C
+Which of the following would a successor auditor ask the predecessor auditor to provide after accepting an audit engagement?<n>A.Disagreements between the predecessor auditor and management as to significant accounting policies and principles.<n>B.The predecessor auditor’s understanding of the reasons for the change of auditors<n>C.Facts known to the predecessor auditor that might bear on the integrity of management.<n>D.Matters that may facilitate the evaluation of financial reporting consistency between the current and prior years.[SEP]D
+As of December 1, year 2, a company obtained a $1,000,000 line of credit maturing in one year on which it has drawn $250,000, a $750,000 secured note due in five annual installments, and a $300,000 three-year balloon note. The company has no other liabilities. How should the company’s debt be presented in its classified balance sheet on December 31, year 2 if no debt repayments were made in December?<n>A.Current liabilities of $1,000,000; long-term liabilities of $1,050,000<n>B.Current liabilities of $500,000; long-term liabilities of $1,550,000<n>C.Current liabilities of $400,000; long-term liabilities of $900,000<n>D.Current liabilities of $500,000; long-term liabilities of $800,000[SEP]C
+Grant Co.'s sales budget shows the following projections for the year ending December 31: Quarter Units First 30000 Second 40000 Third 22500 Fourth 27500 Total 120000 Inventory at the beginning of the year was budgeted at 9000 units. The quantity of finished goods inventory at the end of each quarter is to equal 30% of the next quarter's budgeted sales of units. What amount should the production budget show for units to be produced during the first quarter?<n>A.36000<n>B.33000<n>C.24000<n>D.12000[SEP]B
+Johnson worked for ABC Co. and earned a salary of $100,000. Johnson also received, as a fringe benefit, group termlife insurance at twice Johnson’s salary. The annual IRS established uniform cost of insurance is $2.76 per $1,000. What amount must Johnson include in gross income?<n>A.$100,000<n>B.$100,276<n>C.$100,414<n>D.$100,552[SEP]C
+Vale is a 50% partner in Ball Partnership. Vale's tax basis in Ball on January 2 year 1 was $60000. Ball did not have unrealized receivables appreciated inventory or properties that had been contributed by its partners. On December 31 year 1 Ball made a $10000 nonliquidating cash distribution to each partner. The Ball Partnership income tax return reported the following items for year 1: Tax-exempt interest income $80000 Dividend income 12000 What total amount of gross income from Ball should be included in Vale's year 1 adjusted gross income?<n>A.$6,000<n>B.$16,000<n>C.$36,000<n>D.46000[SEP]A
+While performing an audit of the financial statements of a company for the year ended December 31, year 1, the auditor notes that the company’s sales increased substantially in December, year 1, with a corresponding decrease in January, year 2. In assessing the risk of fraudulent financial reporting or misappropriation of assets, what should be the auditor’s initial indication about the potential for fraud in sales revenue?<n>A.There is a broad indication of misappropriation of assets.<n>B.There is an indication of theft of the entity’s assets.<n>C.There is an indication of embezzling receipts.<n>D.There is a broad indication of financial reporting fraud.[SEP]D
+If a warrant carries a right to buy one share of common stock and is exercisable at $20 per common share while the market price of a share is $30, the theoretical value of the warrant is:<n>A.$20.00<n>B.$10.00<n>C.$5.00<n>D.$0.00[SEP]B
+Which of the following sampling methods would an auditor use to estimate a numerical measurement of a population such as the dollar value of inventory?<n>A.Variable sampling.<n>B.Discovery sampling.<n>C.Attribute sampling.<n>D.Random-number sampling.[SEP]A
+After reviewing the end-user computing (EUC) policy of an organization, an internal auditor audits the actuarial function and notices that some minimum control requirements are missing. Which of the following is a risk of using potentially incorrect enduser developed files?<n>A.Management places the same degree of reliance on the files as they do on files generated from mainframe systems.<n>B.Management receives limited information for decision making due to a lack of flexibility in EUC files.<n>C.Management is unable to respond to competitive pressures quickly.<n>D.Management continues to incur additional cost because it takes more hours to do the tasks using EUC.[SEP]A
+Which of the following events most likely would indicate the existence of related party transactions?<n>A.Insuring the lives of key executives and listing the entity as beneficiary.<n>B.Selling real estate at a price that differs significantly from its appraised value.<n>C.Making a loan with specific scheduled terms for repayment of the funds.<n>D.Granting stock options to key executives at favorable prices.[SEP]B
+Which of the following explanations most likely would satisfy an auditor who questions management about significant debits to accumulated depreciation accounts in the current year?<n>A.Prior years’ depreciation expenses were erroneously understated.<n>B.Current year’s depreciation expense was erroneously understated.<n>C.The estimated remaining useful lives of plant assets were revised upward.<n>D.Plant assets were retired during the current year.[SEP]D
+Zokro a nongovernmental not-for-profit organization uses the indirect method to prepare its statement of cash flows. In determining its net cash provided (used) by operating activities Sokro must add back which of the following to the change in net assets?<n>A.Purchase of equipment.<n>B.Payment on long-term debt.<n>C.Depreciation.<n>D.Decrease in accounts payable.[SEP]C
+A company’s new time clock process requires hourly employees to select an identification number and then choose the clock-in or clock-out button. A video camera captures an image of the employee using the system. Which of the following exposures can the new system be expected to change the least?<n>A.Fraudulent reporting of employees’ own hours.<n>B.Errors in employees’ overtime computation<n>C.Inaccurate accounting of employees’ hours.<n>D.Recording of other employees’ hours.[SEP]B
+A CPA prepared a tax return that involved a tax shelter transaction that was disclosed on the return. In which of the following situations would a tax return preparer penalty not be applicable?<n>A.There was substantial authority for the position.<n>B.It is reasonable to believe that the position would more likely that not be upheld.<n>C.There was a reasonable possibility of success for the position.<n>D.There was a reasonable basis for the position.[SEP]B
+Ace Co. issued 1000 shares of its $10 par value common stock for $15 per share in cash. How should this transaction be reported in Ace's statement of cash flows for the year of issuance?<n>A.$15000 cash inflow from financing activities.<n>B.$10000 cash inflow from financing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.<n>C.$15000 cash flow from investing activities.<n>D.$10000 cash flow from investing activities and $5000 adjustment to arrive at cash flows from operating activities.[SEP]A
+Toft Co. had 120000 shares of common stock outstanding at January 1. On April 1 it issued 40000 additional shares of common stock. Outstanding all year were 10000 shares of nonconvertible preferred stock on which a dividend of $5 per share was declared during the year. Net income for the year was $480000. What should Toft report as earnings per share for the year?<n>A.$2.69<n>B.$2.87<n>C.$3.00<n>D.3.2[SEP]B
+Smile Inc. purchased a computer on May 1 for $12000 with an estimated salvage value of $1500 and a 3-year life. What is the depreciation expense for the year ended December 31 using the double-declining method of depreciation?<n>A.$8,000<n>B.$7,000<n>C.$5,333<n>D.4667[SEP]C
+During an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant becomes aware of several leases that should be capitalized, but are not capitalized. The accountant considers these leases to be material to the financial statements. The accountant decides to modify the standard review report because management will not capitalize the leases. Under these circumstances, the accountant should<n>A.Issue an adverse opinion because of the departure from GAAP.<n>B.Express no assurance of any kind on the entity's financial statements.<n>C.Emphasize that the financial statements are for limited use only.<n>D.Disclose the departure from GAAP in a separate paragraph of the accountant's report.[SEP]D
+Cobb Inc.'s inventory at May 1 consisted of 200 units at a total cost of $1250. Cobb uses the periodic inventory method. Purchases for the month were as follows: Date No. of Units Unit cost Total Cost May 4 20 $5.80 $116.00 May 17 80 $5.50 $440.00 Cobb sold 10 units on May 14 for $120. What is Cobb's weighted average cost of goods sold for May?<n>A.$60.20<n>B.$62.10<n>C.$62.50<n>D.65[SEP]A
+The following information pertains to Dash Co.'s utility bills: Period covered Amount Date paid April 16 – May 15 $5000 June 1 May 16 – June 15 $6000 July 1 June 16 – July 15 $8000 August 1 What is the amount that Dash should report as a liability in its June 30 balance sheet?<n>A.$6,000<n>B.$7,000<n>C.$10,000<n>D.14000[SEP]C
+A spouse died on December 31, year 1. The couple had no dependents. What should be the filing status of the surviving spouse in year 2?<n>A.Single.<n>B.Married filing jointly.<n>C.Qualifying widow(er).<n>D.Head of household.[SEP]A
+A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?<n>A.$23.22<n>B.$21.40<n>C.$20.90<n>D.15.4[SEP]B
+What is the due date of a federal estate tax return (Form 706), for a taxpayer who died on May 15, year 2, assuming that a request for an extension of time is not filed?<n>A.September 15, year 2.<n>B.December 31, year 2.<n>C.January 31, year 3.<n>D.February 15, year 3.[SEP]D
+On July 1 Alto Co. split its common stock 5 for 1 when the fair value was $100 per share. Prior to the split Alto had 10000 shares of $10 par value common stock issued and outstanding. After the split the par value of the stock<n>A.Remained at $10.<n>B.Was reduced to $8.<n>C.Was reduced to $5.<n>D.Was reduced to $2.[SEP]D
+In performing substantive tests regarding the granting of stock options to senior management of an issuer an auditor most likely would<n>A.Confirm with those members of management as to whether they are actually option holders.<n>B.Verify the existence of option holders in the issuer's payroll and human resources records.<n>C.Trace the authorization for the options granted to the board of directors' approval.<n>D.Review the public records of the SEC to determine whether the options were properly reported.[SEP]C
+If the objective of an auditor's test of details is to detect the overstatement of sales the auditor should trace transactions from the<n>A.Sales journal to the shipping documents.<n>B.Shipping documents to the cash receipts journal.<n>C.Cash receipts journal to the customer's purchase orders.<n>D.Customer's purchase orders to the sales journal.[SEP]A
+Which of the following methods should be used to account for research and development costs with no alternative future use?<n>A.Charging all costs to expense when incurred.<n>B.Capitalizing all costs when incurred.<n>C.Capitalizing costs specified by management and charging all other costs to expense.<n>D.Accumulating all costs in a separate component of stockholders' equity until the existence of future benefits can be determined.[SEP]A
+Each of the following would be considered a Level 2 observable input that could be used to determine an asset or liability’s fair value, except<n>A.Quoted prices for identical assets and liabilities in markets that are not active<n>B.Quoted prices for similar assets and liabilities in markets that are active<n>C.Internally generated cash flow projections for a related asset or liability<n>D.Interest rates that are observable at commonly quoted intervals[SEP]C
+Which of the following pricing policies results in establishment of a price to external customers higher than the competitive price for a given industry?<n>A.Collusive pricing<n>B.Dual pricing<n>C.Predatory pricing<n>D.Transfer pricing[SEP]A
+What term is used to represent unavoidable past costs that cannot be changed no matter what action is taken?<n>A.Prime costs<n>B.Sunk costs<n>C.Opportunity costs<n>D.Incremental costs[SEP]B
+Which of the following is considered part of the required supplementary information for general purpose external financial reporting of a local government?<n>A.Fund financial statement.<n>B.Combining nonmajor fund statement.<n>C.Notes to the financial statements.<n>D.Management discussion and analysis.[SEP]D
+The simple linear regression between stock and market returns<n>A.fits the errors to obtain a more precise estimate of the stock’s beta.<n>B.minimises the stock’s alpha, i.e. its idiosyncratic component.<n>C.estimates the alpha of stock returns and their dependence on the market returns.<n>D.models market returns as a function of the stock returns and its beta.[SEP]C
+Which of the following financial instruments may be considered a derivative financial instrument?<n>A.Option contract.<n>B.Municipal bond.<n>C.Bank certificate of deposit.<n>D.Money market fund.[SEP]A
+When an accountant compiles projected financial statements, the accountant’s report should include a separate paragraph that<n>A.Disclaims any form of assurance on the historical financial statements.<n>B.Expresses limited assurance that the results will be within the projected range.<n>C.Describes the limitations on the usefulness of the projection.<n>D.Evaluates the hypothetical assumptions used to prepare the projection.[SEP]C
+Adam Smith is considering automating his pin factory with the purchase of a $475,000 machine. Shipping and installation would cost $5,000. Smith has calculated that automation would result in savings of $45,000 a year due to reduced scrap and $65,000 a year due to reduced labor costs. The machine has a useful life of 4 years and falls in the 3-year property class for MACRS depreciation purposes. The estimated final salvage value of the machine is $120,000. The firm's marginal tax rate is 34 percent. The incremental cash outflow at time period 0 is closest to<n>A.$280,000.00<n>B.$380,000.00<n>C.$480,000.00<n>D.$580,000.00[SEP]C
+If requested to perform a compilation engagement for a nonissuer in which an accountant has an immaterial direct financial interest, the accountant is<n>A.Independent because the financial interest in the nonissuer is immaterial.<n>B.Not independent and, therefore, may not be associated with the financial statements.<n>C.Not independent and, therefore, may not issue a compilation report.<n>D.Not independent and, therefore, may issue a compilation report, but may not issue a review report.[SEP]D
+Aston and Becker are equal partners in AB Partnership. In the tax year the ordinary income of the partnership is $20000 and the partnership has a long-term capital gain of $12000. Aston's basis in AB was $40000 and he received distributions of $5000 during the year. What is Aston's share of AB's ordinary income?<n>A.$10,000<n>B.$15,000<n>C.$16,000<n>D.18500[SEP]A
+Which of the following procedures would an accountant least likely perform during an engagement to review the financial statements of a nonissuer?<n>A.Make inquiries of management about actions taken at board of directors' meetings.<n>B.Study the relationships of financial statement elements expected to conform to predictable patterns.<n>C.Identify internal control activities that are likely to prevent or detect material misstatements.<n>D.Compare the financial statements with anticipated results in budgets and forecasts.[SEP]C
+A compilation of financial statements in accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services is limited to presenting<n>A.Accounting data that conforms with a special purpose framework other than GAAP.<n>B.Unaudited financial statements that omit substantially all required GAAP disclosures.<n>C.Information in the form of financial statements that is the representation of management.<n>D.Supplementary financial information that has been subjected to inquiry and analytical procedures.[SEP]C
+Stock A has a beta of 0.8, while Stock B has a beta of 1.4. The expected return on the market is 10% and the risk-free rate is 7%. Using CAPM and this stock information, what is the required rate of return for Stocks A and B, respectively?<n>A.9.4% and 11.2%<n>B.−2.6% and 4.9%<n>C.4.3% and 7.4%<n>D.6.4% and 10.5%[SEP]A
+Darv Co. had a current ratio of 3-to-1 and a quick ratio of 1-to-1. Current liabilities were $322000. What was the total amount for inventory and prepaid expenses?<n>A.$322,000<n>B.$644,000<n>C.$966,000<n>D.1288000[SEP]B
+Which characteristic of information in the statistical tables included in a comprehensive annual financial report differentiates it from information contained in the financial statements? Data covering financial trends Fiscal years<n>A.Yes Yes<n>B.Yes No<n>C.No Yes<n>D.No No[SEP]A
+Which of the following documents is typically issued as part of the due-process activities of the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) for amending the FASB Accounting Standards Codification?<n>A.A proposed statement of position.<n>B.A proposed accounting standards update.<n>C.A proposed accounting research bulletin.<n>D.A proposed staff accounting bulletin.[SEP]B
+In preparing consolidated financial statements of a U.S. parent company with a foreign subsidiary, the foreign subsidiary’s functional currency is the currency<n>A.In which the subsidiary maintains its accounting records.<n>B.Of the country in which the subsidiary is located.<n>C.Of the country in which the parent is located.<n>D.Of the environment in which the subsidiary primarily generates and expends cash.[SEP]D
+Within the COSO Internal Control—Integrated Framework, which of the following components is designed to ensure that internal controls continue to operate effectively?<n>A.Control environment.<n>B.Risk assessment.<n>C.Information and communication.<n>D.Monitoring.[SEP]D
+Smythe Co. invested $200 in a call option for 100 shares of Gin Co. $.50 par common stock, when the market price was $10 per share. The option expired in three months and had an exercise price of $9 per share. What was the intrinsic value of the call option at the time of initial investment?<n>A.$50<n>B.$100<n>C.$200<n>D.$900[SEP]B
+The Internal Revenue Code and the Regulations do not impose penalties on tax return preparers for which of the following?<n>A.Failure to sign a prepared tax return as a tax preparer.<n>B.Failure to provide a copy of a prepared tax return to the taxpayer.<n>C.Failure to notify a taxpayer about an inadvertent error on a tax return filed 10 years ago.<n>D.Failure to retain copies of prepared tax returns or a list of taxpayers for whom such returns were prepared for the last three years.[SEP]C
+If an auditor includes an emphasis-of-matter paragraph to draw users' attention to a matter relevant to the users' understanding of the financial statements of a nonissuer, then the auditor should<n>A.Indicate in the audit report that the emphasis-of-matter paragraph is required by law or regulation.<n>B.Notify the appropriate regulatory authority if the auditor's opinion was modified on the basis of the matter.<n>C.Modify the introductory paragraph to direct the reader to the emphasis-of-matter paragraph.<n>D.Include the paragraph immediately after the opinion paragraph in the audit report.[SEP]D
+To which of the following parties will a CPA be liable if the CPA fraudulently issues an unqualified opinion on a corporation's materially misstated financial statements? Corporate shareholders, Corporate bondholders<n>A.Yes Yes<n>B.Yes No<n>C.No Yes<n>D.No No[SEP]A
+Which of the following statements regarding an individual’s suspended passive activity losses is correct?<n>A.$3,000 of suspended losses can be utilized each year against portfolio income.<n>B.Suspended losses can be carried forward, but not back, until utilized.<n>C.Suspended losses must be carried back three years and forward seven years.<n>D.A maximum of 50% of the suspended losses can be used each year when an election is made to forgo the carryback period.[SEP]B
+Brill Co. made the following expenditures relating to Product X: Labor and material costs incurred in producing a prototype $100000 Cost of testing the prototype $40000 Legal costs to file a patent $5000 Production of Product X commenced when the patent was granted. What amount of the above costs should be expensed as research and development costs?<n>A.$40,000<n>B.$100,000<n>C.$140,000<n>D.145000[SEP]C
+While performing interim audit procedures of accounts receivable, numerous unexpected errors are found resulting in a change of risk assessment. Which of the following audit responses would be most appropriate?<n>A.Move detailed analytical procedures from year-end to interim.<n>B.Increase the dollar threshold of vouching customer invoices<n>C.Send negative accounts receivable confirmations instead of positive accounts receivable confirmations<n>D.Use more experienced audit team members to perform year-end testing[SEP]D
+An auditor has substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time because of negative cash flows and working capital deficiencies. Under these circumstances, the auditor would be most concerned about the<n>A.Control environment factors that affect the organizational structure.<n>B.Correlation of detection risk and inherent risk.<n>C.Effectiveness of the entity’s internal control activities.<n>D.Possible effects on the entity’s financial statements.[SEP]D
+The statement of activities in the government-wide financial statements includes which of the following?<n>A.Separate columns for governmental activities business-type activities and discretely presented component units.<n>B.Separate columns for each major governmental fund.<n>C.Separate columns for each nonmajor governmental fund.<n>D.A separate section at the bottom of the statement that shows program and general revenues.[SEP]A
+Which of the following statements should be included in a practitioner’s report on the application of agreed-upon procedures?<n>A.A statement that the practitioner performed an examination of prospective financial statements.<n>B.A statement of scope limitation that will qualify the practitioner’s opinion.<n>C.A statement referring to standards established by the AICPA.<n>D.A statement of negative assurance based on procedures performed.[SEP]C
+A $500 par-value convertible debenture is selling at $520. If the conversion ratio is 20, what is the conversion price?<n>A.$19.23<n>B.$20.18<n>C.$25.00<n>D.$26.00[SEP]C
+Which of the following is an essential element of the audit trail in an electronic data interchange (EDI) system?<n>A.An integrated test facility that verifies the accuracy of data.<n>B.A heuristic program that accesses remote locations.<n>C.Hardware security modules that store sensitive data.<n>D.Computer activity logs that indicate failed transactions.[SEP]D
+A company has income after tax of $5.4 million, interest expense of $1 million for the year, depreciation expense of $1 million, and a 40% tax rate. What is the company’s times-interest-earned ratio?<n>A.5.4<n>B.6.4<n>C.7.4<n>D.10[SEP]D
+The essence of responsibility accounting is<n>A.Developing performance reports emphasizing costs and revenues that managers can control.<n>B.Allocating service department costs to production departments so that production department managers know all costs for which they are responsible.<n>C.Determining who is to blame for unfavorable variances.<n>D.Investigating all variances regardless of their status as favorable or unfavorable.[SEP]A
+Mast Co. converted from the FIFO method for inventory valuation to the LIFO method for financial statement and tax purposes. During a period of inflation would Mast's ending inventory and income tax payable using LIFO be higher or lower than FIFO? Ending inventory Income tax payable<n>A.Lower Lower<n>B.Higher Higher<n>C.Lower Higher<n>D.Higher Lower[SEP]A
+A company should recognize goodwill in its balance sheet at which of the following points?<n>A.Costs have been incurred in the development of goodwill.<n>B.Goodwill has been created in the purchase of a business.<n>C.The company expects a future benefit from the creation of goodwill.<n>D.The fair market value of the company’s assets exceeds the book value of the company’s assets.[SEP]B
+An individual paid taxes 27 months ago, but did not file a tax return for that year. Now the individual wants to file a claim for refund of federal income taxes that were paid at that time. The individual must file the claim for refund within which of the following time periods after those taxes were paid?<n>A.One year.<n>B.Two years.<n>C.Three years.<n>D.Four years.[SEP]B
+Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm's quality control policies and procedures applicable to the firm's auditing practice?<n>A.Acceptance of a client relationship.<n>B.Professional skepticism of management.<n>C.Computer information processing.<n>D.Efficiency of organizational structures.[SEP]A
+In year 6, an IRS agent completed an examination of a corporation’s year 5 tax return and proposed an adjustment that will result in an increase in taxable income for each of years 1 through year 5. All returns were filed on the original due date. The proposed adjustment relates to the disallowance of corporate jet usage for personal reasons. The agent does not find the error to be fraudulent or substantial in nature. Which of the following statements regarding this adjustment is correct?<n>A.The adjustment is improper because an agent may only propose adjustments to the year under examination.<n>B.The adjustment is proper because there is no statute of limitations for improperly claiming personal expenses as business expenses<n>C.The adjustment is proper because it relates to a change in accounting method, which can be made retroactively irrespective of the statute of limitations.<n>D.The adjustment is improper because the statute of limitations has expired for several years of the adjustment[SEP]D
+Hall Co. purchased a machine on January 1 at a cost of $140000. The machine had an estimated useful life of eight years and a salvage value of $60000. Hall chose to depreciate the machine using the double- declining balance method. What was the carrying amount of the machine in Hall's balance sheet at the end of its second year of operations?<n>A.$60,000<n>B.$61,250<n>C.$78,750<n>D.80000[SEP]C
+Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?<n>A.$0<n>B.$20,000<n>C.$40,000<n>D.800000[SEP]C
+Corbet Co. purchased a copyright near the beginning of the current year from an author for $20000. The legal life of the copyright is equivalent to the life of the author plus 50 years. Corbet expects to sell the book for five years. What amount should Corbet report as amortization expense related to the copyright at the end of the current year?<n>A.$0<n>B.$400<n>C.$500<n>D.4000[SEP]D
+The sole shareholder of an S corporation contributed equipment with a fair market value of $20,000 and a basis of $6,000 subject to $12,000 liability. What amount is the gain, if any, that the shareholder must recognize<n>A.$0<n>B.$6,000<n>C.$8,000<n>D.$12,000[SEP]B
+Carter Co. had the following items on its balance sheet at the end of the current year: Cash and cash equivalents $ 200000 Short-term investments 100000 Accounts receivable 400000 Inventories 600000 Patent–10 years 300000 Equipment 1000000 Accumulated depreciation 200000 The amount of current liabilities at the end of the current year was $640000. What is Carter's working capital at the end of the current year?<n>A.$60,000<n>B.$560,000<n>C.$660,000<n>D.960000[SEP]C
+If a CPA recklessly departs from the standards of due care when conducting an audit the CPA will be liable to third parties who are unknown to the CPA under the law of<n>A.Strict liability.<n>B.Breach of contract.<n>C.Negligence.<n>D.Gross negligence.[SEP]D
+Given a 10% discount rate with cash inflows of $3,000 at the end of each year for five years and an initial investment of $11,000, what is the net present value?<n>A.-$9,500<n>B.$370<n>C.$4,000<n>D.$11,370[SEP]B
+Which of the following factors most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of fraudulent financial reporting?<n>A.The audit committee's approval of the initial selection of accounting principles.<n>B.A lack of competition in the entity's industry accompanied by increasing profit margins.<n>C.Management's disclosure of unresolved litigation and contingent liabilities.<n>D.Year-end adjustments by the entity that significantly affect financial results.[SEP]D
+Which of the following techniques effectively measures improvements in product quality as a result of internal failure costs?<n>A.Inspection of in-process goods.<n>B.Recording the number of products returned over time.<n>C.Tracking the number of products reworked.<n>D.Tracking warranty expenses over time.[SEP]C
+A CPA prepares a client’s tax return containing business travel expenses without inquiring about the existence of documentation for the expenses. Which statement best describes the consequence of the CPA’s lack of inquiry?<n>A.The CPA may be assessed a tax return preparer penalty.<n>B.The CPA may be charged with preparing a fraudulent return<n>C.The client will not owe an understatement penalty if the return is audited and the expenses disallowed<n>D.The client will not be subject to a fraud penalty[SEP]A
+Which of the following is the proper treatment of the cost of equipment used in research and development activities that will have alternative future uses?<n>A.Expensed in the year in which the research and development project started.<n>B.Capitalized and depreciated over the term of the research and development project.<n>C.Capitalized and depreciated over its estimated useful life.<n>D.Either capitalized or expensed, but not both, depending on the term of the research and development project.[SEP]C
+King, Inc. owns 70% of Simmon Co’s outstanding common stock. King’s liabilities total $450,000, and Simmon’s liabilities total $200,000. Included in Simmon’s financial statements is a $100,000 note payable to King. What amount of total liabilities should be reported in the consolidated financial statements?<n>A.$520,000<n>B.$550,000<n>C.$590,000<n>D.$650,000[SEP]B
+Confirmation of accounts receivable that have been categorized initially by an auditor as “exceptions” most likely could be due to<n>A.Customers who have credit or zero balances with the client.<n>B.Responses that were mailed rather than faxed to the auditor.<n>C.Accounts receivable that have been classified as uncollectible.<n>D.Payments mailed to the client that have not been recorded.[SEP]D
+Accrual accounting involves accruals and deferrals. Which of the following best describes accruals and deferrals?<n>A.Accruals are concerned with expected future cash receipts and payments while deferrals are concerned with past cash receipts and payments.<n>B.Accruals are concerned with past cash receipts and payments while deferrals are concerned with expected future cash receipts and payments.<n>C.Both accruals and deferrals are concerned with expected future cash receipts and payments.<n>D.Both accruals and deferrals are concerned with past cash receipts and payments.[SEP]A
+An accountant has been engaged to compile a nonissuer's financial statements that contain several misapplications of accounting principles and unreasonable accounting estimates. Management is unwilling to revise the financial statements and the accountant believes that modification of the standard compilation report is not adequate to communicate the deficiencies. Under these circumstances the accountant should<n>A.Disclaim an opinion on the financial statements and advise the board of directors that the financial statements should not be relied upon.<n>B.Inform management that the engagement can proceed only if distribution of the accountant's compilation report is restricted to internal use.<n>C.Determine the effects of the deficiencies and add a separate paragraph to the compilation report that describes the deficiencies and their effects.<n>D.Withdraw from the compilation engagement and provide no further services concerning these financial statements.[SEP]D
+Which of the following cannot be amortized for tax purposes?<n>A.Incorporation costs.<n>B.Temporary directors’ fees.<n>C.Stock issuance costs.<n>D.Organizational meeting costs.[SEP]C
+What is the process by which products and services of a business entity are measured and evaluated relative to the best possible levels of performance?<n>A.Measuring the performance gap<n>B.Standard measurement<n>C.Benchmarking<n>D.Variance management[SEP]C
+The expected selling price for a new product is $19.00. Management's goal is to obtain a 20% contribution margin on all sales. If the new product has variable selling and distribution costs of $3.00 per unit what is the product's target variable manufacturing cost?<n>A.$12.20<n>B.$12.80<n>C.$15.80<n>D.18.2[SEP]A
+Mill Co. reported pretax income of $152500 for the year ended December 31. During the year-end audit the external auditors discovered the following errors: Ending inventory $30000 overstated Depreciation expense $64000 understated What amount should Mill report as the correct pretax income for the year ended December 31?<n>A.$58,500<n>B.$118,500<n>C.$186,500<n>D.246500[SEP]A
+Which of the following defenses is likely to be successful in a suit alleging negligence by a CPA?<n>A.Due care.<n>B.Ignorance of the law.<n>C.Lack of intent.<n>D.Lack of mental capacity.[SEP]A
+On May 1 of the prior year, Baker purchased equipment with a five-year useful life for a cost of $10,000. Baker adopted the MACRS depreciation system and did not utilize any special depreciation deductions. On March 1 of the current year, Baker sold the equipment. The MACRS depreciation schedule for five-year property is listed below:<n>First year - 20.00%<n>Second year - 32.00%<n>Third year - 19.20%<n>What amount of depreciation can Baker deduct in the current year?<n>A.$533<n>B.$1,600<n>C.$2,000<n>D.$3,200[SEP]B
+An entity engaged an accountant to review its financial statements in accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services. The accountant determined that the entity maintained its accounts on a comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). In this situation, the accountant most likely would have taken which of the following actions?<n>A.Withdrawn from the engagement because the entity has not been following GAAP.<n>B.Advised management to make the adjustments necessary for the account balances to conform with GAAP.<n>C.Modified the review report to reflect the fact that the financial statements were presented on another comprehensive basis of accounting.<n>D.Requested that management justify the use of the other comprehensive basis of accounting in the management representation letter.[SEP]C
+The city of Cobb has two trust funds for the benefit of the city's library trust fund A and trust fund B. Only the earnings from trust fund A can be expended and both the principal and interest from trust fund B can be expended. How should the city of Cobb report each trust fund? Trust fund A Trust fund B<n>A.Permanent Permanent<n>B.Permanent Special revenue<n>C.Special revenue Permanent<n>D.Special revenue Special revenue[SEP]B
+A firm's inventory turnover (IT) is 5 times on a cost of goods sold (COGS) of $800,000. If the IT is improved to 8 times while the COGS remains the same, a substantial amount of funds is released from or additionally invested in inventory. In fact,<n>A.$160,000 is released.<n>B.$100,000 is additionally invested.<n>C.$60,000 is additionally invested.<n>D.$60,000 is released.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?<n>A.Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.<n>B.We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.<n>C.Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.<n>D.Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.[SEP]D
+Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA not to accept a new audit engagement?<n>A.Management reputation for failing to provide schedules to prior auditors on a timely basis.<n>B.The CPA's inability to review the predecessor auditor's working papers.<n>C.Management's unwillingness to make all financial records available to the CPA.<n>D.The CPA's lack of understanding of the entity's operations and industry.[SEP]C
+Which of the following pairs of elements must a client prove to hold an accountant liable for common law fraud?<n>A.Material misrepresentation and breach of contract.<n>B.Freedom from contributory negligence and loss.<n>C.Scienter and justifiable reliance.<n>D.Intent to deceive and privity.[SEP]C
+A corporate taxpayer plans to switch from the FIFO method to the LIFO method of valuing inventory. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the use of the LIFO method?<n>A.In periods of rising prices, the LIFO method results in a lower cost of sales and higher taxable income, when compared to the FIFO method.<n>B.The taxpayer is required to receive permission each year from the Internal Revenue Service to continue the use of the LIFO method.<n>C.The LIFO method can be used for tax purposes even if the FIFO method is used for financial statement purposes.<n>D.Under the LIFO method, the inventory on hand at the end of the year is treated as being composed of the earliest acquired goods.[SEP]D
+Lemon owned 2000 shares of Spectrol Corp. common stock that were purchased in year 1 at $10.50 per share. In year 4 Lemon received a 5% non-taxable dividend of Spectrol common stock. In year 5 the stock split 2-for-1. In the current year Lemon sold 800 shares. What is Lemon's basis in the 800 shares of stock sold?<n>A.$4,000<n>B.$8,000<n>C.$8,400<n>D.16800[SEP]A
+Increasing the credit period from 30 to 60 days, in response to a similar action taken by all of our competitors, would likely result in:<n>A.an increase in the average collection period.<n>B.a decrease in bad debt losses.<n>C.an increase in sales.<n>D.higher profits.[SEP]A
+Which of the following characteristics most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of material misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting?<n>A.The entity's industry is experiencing declining customer demand.<n>B.Employees who handle cash receipts are not bonded.<n>C.Bank reconciliations usually include in-transit deposits.<n>D.Equipment is often sold at a loss before being fully depreciated.[SEP]A
+An auditor is selecting prenumbered purchase orders for testing an entity's internal control activities related to their proper approval before office equipment is ordered. The auditor is matching random numbers with the purchase order numbers to determine which purchase orders to inspect. If a random number matches a voided purchase order the auditor ordinarily would replace the voided purchase order with another if the voided purchase order<n>A.Represents office equipment ordered and never received.<n>B.Has been properly voided in the normal course of business.<n>C.Represents office equipment ordered and canceled before being processed by the vendor.<n>D.Has been electronically deleted from the purchase order file.[SEP]B
+An auditor of a nonissuer should design tests of details to ensure that sufficient audit evidence supports which of the following?<n>A.The planned level of control risk.<n>B.Management’s assertions that internal controls exist and are operating efficiently.<n>C.The effectiveness of internal controls.<n>D.The planned level of assurance at the relevant assertion level.[SEP]D
+Mill CPA was engaged by a group of royalty recipients to apply agreed-upon procedures to financial data supplied by Modern Co. regarding Modern's written assertion about its compliance with contractual requirements to pay royalties. Mill's report on these agreed-upon procedures should contain a(an)<n>A.Disclaimer of opinion about the fair presentation of Modern's financial statements.<n>B.List of the procedures performed (or reference thereto) and Mill's findings.<n>C.Opinion about the effectiveness of Modern's internal control activities concerning royalty payments.<n>D.Acknowledgment that the sufficiency of the procedures is solely Mill's responsibility.[SEP]B
+Simmons gives her child a gift of publicly traded stock with a basis of $40,000 and a fair market value of $30,000. No gift tax is paid. The child subsequently sells the stock for $36,000. What is the child’s recognized gain or loss, if any?<n>A.$4,000 loss.<n>B.No gain or loss.<n>C.$6,000 gain.<n>D.$36,000 gain.[SEP]B
+Goll Co. has a 25% interest in the common stock of Rose Co. and an 18% interest in the common stock of Jave Co. Neither investment gives Goll the ability to exercise significant influence over either company's operating and financial policies. Which of the two investments should Goll account for using the equity method?<n>A.Both Rose and Jave.<n>B.Rose only.<n>C.Jave only.<n>D.Neither Rose nor Jave.[SEP]D
+What is the present value of $10 received in two years’ time if the discount rate is 9%?<n>A.$9<n>B.$11<n>C.$8.26<n>D.$8.42[SEP]D
+Which of the following circumstances generally will cause a discharge of contractual duties by operation of law?<n>A.Novation.<n>B.Accord and satisfaction.<n>C.Anticipatory repudiation.<n>D.Impossibility of performance.[SEP]D
+In searching for unrecorded liabilities an auditor most likely would examine the<n>A.Cutoff bank statement for deposits recorded in the books but not by the bank.<n>B.Details of accounts receivable confirmations that are classified as "exceptions".<n>C.Files of purchase requisitions for items ordered just before the year end.<n>D.Receiving reports for items received before year end but not yet recorded.[SEP]D
+The capital structure of Merritt Co. is 20% common equity and debt equal to 80%. The cost of common equity is 10% and the pretax cost of debt is 5%. Merritt's tax rate is 21%. What is Merritt's weighted-average cost of capital?<n>A.5.16%<n>B.6.00%<n>C.6.98%<n>D.7.50%[SEP]A
+Greene is the sole shareholder of Seagull, a calendar-year S corporation. Greene's basis at the beginning of the year is $15,000. Seagull reported an ordinary loss of $5,000 and $2,000 of municipal bond interest for the year. Seagull distributed cash of $6,000 to Greene on November 1. What is Greene's basis in Seagull at the end of the year?<n>A.$4,000<n>B.$6,000<n>C.$14,000<n>D.$15,000[SEP]B
+Holt Co. discovered that in the prior year it failed to report $40000 of depreciation related to a newly constructed building. The depreciation was computed correctly for tax purposes. The tax rate for the current year was 20%. How should Holt report the correction of error in the current year?<n>A.As an increase in accumulated depreciation of $32000.<n>B.As an increase in accumulated depreciation of $40000.<n>C.As an increase in depreciation expense of $32000.<n>D.As an increase of depreciation expense of $40000.[SEP]B
+Which of the following factors most likely would cause an accountant not to accept an engagement to compile the financial statements of a nonissuer?<n>A.A lack of segregation of duties in the entity's accounting and payroll departments.<n>B.Indications that reports of asset misappropriation are not investigated by management.<n>C.The entity's intention to omit from the financial statements substantially all of the disclosures required by GAAP.<n>D.Management's acknowledgement that the financial statements will be included in a written personal financial plan.[SEP]B
+Which of the following transactions correctly illustrates the doctrine of substantial performance?<n>A.Blair ordered a dozen blue chairs from Kyle but Kyle delivered a dozen red chairs.<n>B.Leslie painted an entire room but failed to put the electrical outlet covers back on.<n>C.A contract required hair styling to be done to Toby's satisfaction but Toby was in good faith dissatisfied with the completed result.<n>D.A dentist competently completed the extraction of Lee's tooth but mistakenly pulled the wrong one.[SEP]B
+In assessing the tolerable rate of deviations of a test of controls that was performed using statistical sampling an auditor should consider that<n>A.Deviations from pertinent controls do not affect the risk of material misstatement in the accounting records.<n>B.Deviations from pertinent controls at a given rate ordinarily result in misstatements at a lower rate.<n>C.When the degree of assurance desired in a sample is high the auditor should allow for a high level of sampling risk.<n>D.Increasing the number of items selected for the test of controls usually increases the tolerable rate of deviations.[SEP]B
+The covariance between Stock A and the market index is 88, while their standard deviations are respectively 19% and 14%. What is the beta of Stock A?<n>A.0.24<n>B.0.35<n>C.0.245<n>D.0.45[SEP]D
+Summer, a single individual, had a net operating loss of $20,000 three years ago. A Code Sec. 1244 stock loss made up three-fourths of that loss. Summer had no taxable income from that year until the current year. In the current year, Summer has gross income of $80,000 and sustains another loss of $50,000 on Code Sec. 1244 stock. Assuming that Summer can carry the entire $20,000 net operating loss to the current year, what is the amount and character of the Code Sec. 1244 loss that Summer can deduct for the current year?<n>A.$35,000 ordinary loss.<n>B.$35,000 capital loss.<n>C.$50,000 ordinary loss.<n>D.$50,000 capital loss.[SEP]C
+Prior to the issuance of its December 31 financial statements Stark Co. was named as a defendant in a lawsuit arising from an event that occurred in October. Stark's legal counsel believes that it is reasonably possible that there will be an unfavorable outcome and that damages will range from $100000 to $150000. Which amount(s) should Stark accrue and/or disclose in its December 31 financial statements? Accrue contingent liability Disclose contingent liability<n>A.$100000 $100000 - $150000<n>B.$100000 $150000<n>C.$0 $100000 - $150000<n>D.$0 $150000[SEP]C
+Best County's capital projects fund had the following receipts during the year: Transfer from the general fund $100000 Federal capital grant $75000 Special assessment for capital improvements $300000 What amount of revenues should Best County report in its capital projects fund at the end of the year?<n>A.$75,000<n>B.$300,000<n>C.$375,000<n>D.475000[SEP]C
+Prior to commencing the compilation of financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant is required to<n>A.Verify that the financial information supplied by the entity agrees with the books of original entry.<n>B.Perform preliminary analytical procedures to identify accounts that may represent specific risks relevant to the engagement.<n>C.Make inquiries of management concerning the entity's procedures used in adjusting and closing the books of account.<n>D.Obtain an understanding of any specialized financial reporting frameworks and practices used in the entity's industry.[SEP]D
+An audit client has a valid reason for requesting that a certain account receivable that the auditor has selected for confirmation not be confirmed. Under these circumstances the auditor should<n>A.Verify the account balance by inspecting the client's bank statements and cash receipt records.<n>B.Select at random a different account for confirmation that is approximately the same size.<n>C.Request the client's management to document the matter in the management representation letter.<n>D.Explain to the client that the request will most likely cause the auditor to disclaim an opinion.[SEP]A
+Dari Inc. guaranteed the debt of a related party. In December Dari learned that it is probable it will be required to pay between $150000 and $200000 within the next six months in satisfaction of its guarantee but no amount within that range is more likely. What amount of contingent liability should Dari accrue in its December 31 balance sheet?<n>A.$200,000<n>B.$175,000<n>C.$150,000<n>D.0[SEP]C
+Which of the following decision-making techniques is most useful to a manager who is attempting to increase the profitability of an area, but who has a problem with limited capacity for operation of a critical machine?<n>A.Theory of constraints.<n>B.Economic order quantity.<n>C.Balanced scorecard.<n>D.Cost-variance analysis.[SEP]A
+Markson Co. traded a concrete-mixing truck with a book value of $10,000 to Pro Co. for a cement-mixing machine with a fair value of $11,000. Markson needs to know the answer to which of the following questions in order to determine whether the exchange has commercial substance?<n>A.Does the book value of the asset given up exceed the fair value of the asset received?<n>B.Is the gain on the exchange less than the increase in future cash flows?<n>C.Are the future cash flows expected to change significantly as a result of the exchange?<n>D.Is the exchange nontaxable?[SEP]C
+An analyst expects a company to pay a dividend of $5 with a dividend growth rate of 3%. The inflation rate is expected to fall from 5% per year to 3% per year. As a result of the change in the inflation premium, the company's<n>A.Stock price will likely decrease.<n>B.Cost of equity will likely remain stable.<n>C.Cost of equity will likely decrease.<n>D.Stock price will likely remain stable.[SEP]C
+The standard deviations of Stocks A and B are respectively 6% and 18%. If their correlation is 0.2 and an equal weighted portfolio is formed, what is the standard deviation of such a portfolio?<n>A.10%<n>B.5%<n>C.3.40%<n>D.9.70%[SEP]A
+Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?<n>A.$0<n>B.$25,000<n>C.$40,000<n>D.65000[SEP]B
+A U.S. manufacturer has a production operation in Mexico. The product costs 116.50 pesos to produce and ship to Europe, where the product sells for 20 euros. If 0.1099 U.S. dollars are required to buy one Mexican peso, and 0.8928 U.S. dollars are required to buy one euro, what amount of U.S. dollars is the profit on the sale?<n>A.$5.06<n>B.$6.11<n>C.$7.20<n>D.$9.60[SEP]A
+Dodd Co.'s debt securities at December 31 included available-for-sale securities with a cost basis of $24000 and a fair value of $30000. Dodd's income tax rate was 20%. What amount of unrealized gain or loss should Dodd recognize in its income statement at December 31?<n>A.$6000 loss.<n>B.$0<n>C.$4800 gain.<n>D.$6000 gain.[SEP]B
+Which of these is true of equity but not of bonds?<n>A.They can be issued by firms.<n>B.Their payouts (i.e. dividend or coupons) are made after corporation tax has already been deducted.<n>C.Their payouts (i.e. dividends or coupons) are made before corporation tax has been deducted.<n>D.They can be traded on the secondary market.[SEP]B
+Suppose that the market price of Company X is $45 per share and that of Company Y is $30. If X offers three-fourths a share of common stock for each share of Y, the ratio of exchange of market prices would be:<n>A.0.667<n>B.1<n>C.1.125<n>D.1.5[SEP]C
+Which of the following activities is not an element of a CPA firm's quality control system to be considered in establishing quality control policies and procedures?<n>A.Deciding whether to accept or continue a client relationship.<n>B.Selecting personnel for advancement who have the necessary qualifications.<n>C.Assessing a client's ability to establish effective internal controls.<n>D.Monitoring the effectiveness of professional development activities.[SEP]C
+Strom acquired a 25% interest in Ace Partnership by contributing land having an adjusted basis of $16,000 and a fair market value of $50,000. The land was subject to a $24,000 mortgage, which was assumed by Ace. No other liabilities existed at the time of the contribution. What was Strom's basis in Ace?<n>A.$0<n>B.$16,000<n>C.$26,000<n>D.$32,000[SEP]A
+Subsequent to issuing a report on audited financial statements, a CPA discovers that the accounts receivable confirmation process omitted a number of accounts that are material, in the aggregate. Which of the following actions should the CPA take immediately?<n>A.Bring the matter to the attention of the board of directors or audit committee.<n>B.Withdraw the auditor’s report from those persons currently relying on it.<n>C.Perform alternative procedures to verify account balances.<n>D.Discuss the potential financial statement adjustments with client management.[SEP]C
+A company sells DVD players for $200 per unit. The players have a unit variable cost of $160. The company estimates that it will sell one home entertainment system for every four DVD players sold. Home entertainment systems have a unit variable cost of $460 and sell for $600 per unit. The company's fixed costs are $90000. Assuming that the sales mix estimate is correct how many DVD players need to be sold for the company to break even?<n>A.300<n>B.500<n>C.1200<n>D.1500[SEP]C
+Felton Farm Supplies, Inc., has an 8 percent return on total assets of $300,000 and a net profit margin of 5 percent. What are its sales?<n>A.$3,750,000.00<n>B.$480,000<n>C.$300,000<n>D.$1,500,000[SEP]B
+An entity prepares its financial statements on its income tax basis. The accompanying notes include a summary of significant accounting policies that discusses the basis of presentation and describes how that basis differs from GAAP. The dollar amount of the effects of the difference between the income tax basis and GAAP<n>A.Is required to be included only in the auditor's report.<n>B.Is required to be included only in the notes to the financial statements.<n>C.Is required to be included both in the notes to the financial statements and the auditor's report.<n>D.Need not be quantified and included in either the notes to the financial statements or the auditor's report.[SEP]D
+An auditor decides to use the blank form of positive accounts receivable confirmation. The auditor should be aware that the blank form may be ineffective because<n>A.All accounts do not have an equal opportunity to be selected for confirmation.<n>B.Accounts unconfirmed may have already been written off as uncollectible.<n>C.Few responses may occur because more effort is required of recipients.<n>D.Accounts actually confirmed may not be representative of the population.[SEP]C
+Gamma Co. a manufacturer of medical products had a 10% return on assets and an asset turnover of 4:1. What was Gamma's profit margin on sales?<n>A.40.00%<n>B.10.00%<n>C.4.00%<n>D.0.025[SEP]D
+A company whose stock is trading at $10 per share has 1,000 shares of $1 par common stock outstanding when the board of directors declares a 30% common stock dividend. Which of the following adjustments should be made when recording the stock dividend?<n>A.Treasury stock is debited for $300.<n>B.Additional paid-in capital is credited for $2,700.<n>C.Retained earnings is debited for $300.<n>D.Common stock is debited for $3,000.[SEP]C
+An auditor is evaluating a client’s internal controls. Which of the following situations would be the most difficult internal control issue for an auditor to detect?<n>A.The accounting staff neglects the control, due to increased transactions to be processed.<n>B.The technology department writes a program that does not properly implement the control, due to a lack of understanding.<n>C.Two employees, who work in different departments, are circumventing an internal control.<n>D.Someone erroneously disables edit checks in a software program designed to identify control exceptions.[SEP]C
+If a five-year bond has a yield of 6% and a ten-year bond has a yield of 5%, what is the yield curve likely to be?<n>A.upward sloping<n>B.3% at −5<n>C.4% at −10<n>D.downward sloping[SEP]D
+Which of the following, discovered during an audit, most likely would raise a question concerning possible illegal acts?<n>A.Related party transactions, although properly disclosed, were pervasive during the year.<n>B.The entity prepared several large checks payable to cash during the year.<n>C.Material internal control weaknesses previously reported to management were not corrected.<n>D.The entity was a campaign contributor to several local political candidates during the year.[SEP]B
+Under state law Boca Co. may reimburse the state directly for actual unemployment claims or it may pay 3% of eligible gross wages. Boca believes that actual unemployment claims will be 2% of eligible gross wages and has chosen to reimburse the state. Eligible gross wages are defined as the first $15000 of gross wages paid to each employee. Boca had four employees each of whom earned $20000 during the year. What amount should Boca report as accrued liability for unemployment claims in its year-end balance sheet?<n>A.$1,200<n>B.$1,600<n>C.$1,800<n>D.2400[SEP]A
+Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely complete to test the existence assertion of property, plant and equipment?<n>A.Obtaining a listing of all current-year additions, vouching significant additions to original invoices, and determining that they have been placed in service.<n>B.Obtaining a detailed fixed-asset register and ensuring items are appropriately capitalized.<n>C.Obtaining a listing of current-year additions and verifying that items are recorded in the proper period.<n>D.Obtaining a detailed fixed-asset register and ensuring depreciation methods are applied consistently.[SEP]A
+An auditor may provide an issuer client any of the following nonaudit services without impairing independence and without obtaining the preapproval of the audit committee, except<n>A.Nonaudit services with revenues in aggregate of less than 5% of the total revenues paid by the issuer to the auditor during the fiscal year in which the nonaudit services are provided.<n>B.Nonaudit services that were promptly brought to the attention of, and approved by, the audit committee prior to the completion of the audit.<n>C.Nonaudit services to perform financial information systems design and implementation.<n>D.Services that the issuer did not recognize as nonaudit services at the time of the engagement.[SEP]C
+Which of the following applies to an accountant conducting a review of interim financial information?<n>A.The accountant must indicate in the report those circumstances in which generally accepted accounting principles have not been consistently observed in the current period in relation to the preceding period.<n>B.The accountant must express an opinion on the financial statements taken as a whole.<n>C.The accountant must maintain independence in mental attitude in all matters relating to the engagement.<n>D.The accountant must obtain sufficient appropriate evidence by performing procedures to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion.[SEP]C
+Parent gave securities with an adjusted basis of $10000 and fair market value of $9000 to a child. Later the child sold the securities for $7000. What is the child's basis for the securities sold?<n>A.$10,000<n>B.$9,000<n>C.$7,000<n>D.0[SEP]B
+A CPA was engaged to calculate the rate of return on a specified investment according to an agreedupon formula and verify that the resultant percentage agrees to the percentage in an identified schedule. The CPA's report on these agreed-upon procedures should contain<n>A.An opinion about the fairness of the agreed-upon procedures.<n>B.A separate paragraph describing the effectiveness of the internal controls.<n>C.A disclaimer of responsibility for the sufficiency of those procedures.<n>D.A disclaimer of opinion on the fair presentation of the financial statements.[SEP]C
+When comparing investment projects:<n>A.The ranking of projects by NPV is invariant to changes in the market rate<n>B.The IRR will always agree with NPV metric<n>C.The IRR never changes the ranking of the projects<n>D.We should use a single metric, like the NPV or the IRR, to have a coherent comparison[SEP]C
+According to rules issued under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act which of the following nonaudit services is an accounting firm permitted to provide for an issuer audit client without impairing the accounting firm's independence?<n>A.Providing an expert opinion in order to advocate the client's interest in litigation.<n>B.Providing an expert opinion in order to advocate the client's position in a regulatory investigation.<n>C.Providing factual accounts in testimony explaining positions taken during the performance of any services provided to the client.<n>D.Providing legal services to the client in a foreign jurisdiction.[SEP]C
+Match Co. manufactures a product with the following costs per unit based on a maximum plant capacity of 400000 units per year: Direct materials $ 60 Direct labor 10 Variable overhead 40 Fixed overhead 30 Total $140 Match has a ready market for all 400000 units at a selling price of $200 each. Selling costs in this market consist of $10 per unit shipping and a fixed licensing fee of $50000 per year. Reno Co. wishes to buy 5000 of these units on a special order. There would be no shipping costs on this special order. What is the lowest price per unit at which Match should be willing to sell the 5000 units to Reno?<n>A.$110<n>B.$140<n>C.$190<n>D.200[SEP]C
+Pine Co. purchased land for $450000 as a factory site. An existing building on the site was razed before construction began. Additional information is as follows: Cost of razing old building $60000 Title insurance and legal fees to purchase land $30000 Architect's fees $95000 New building construction cost $1850000 What amount should Pine capitalize as the cost of the completed factory building?<n>A.$2,005,000<n>B.$1,975,000<n>C.$1,945,000<n>D.1910000[SEP]C
+A company has a parcel of land to be used for a future production facility. The company applies the revaluation model under IFRS to this class of assets. In year 1, the company acquired the land for $100,000. At the end of year 1, the carrying amount was reduced to $90,000, which represented the fair value at that date. At the end of year 2, the land was revalued, and the fair value increased to $105,000. How should the company account for the year 2 change in fair value?<n>A.By recognizing $10,000 in other comprehensive income.<n>B.By recognizing $15,000 in other comprehensive income.<n>C.By recognizing $15,000 in profit or loss.<n>D.By recognizing $10,000 in profit or loss and $5,000 in other comprehensive income.[SEP]D
+A 20% target contribution margin is set for Duct which is a new product with the following unit costs: Manufacturing costs Variable $12 Fixed 8 Selling & admin. Costs Variable $3 Fixed 5 What is Duct's target selling price?<n>A.$18.00<n>B.$18.75<n>C.$25.00<n>D.33.6[SEP]B
+A company last paid a dividend of $3. If the expected return on its equity is estimated at 12% and its shares are currently quoted on London Stock Exchange at $75, what should the dividend growth rate be to ensure that the price is consistent with the pricing of a growing perpetuity?<n>A.0%<n>B.8%<n>C.16%<n>D.-4%[SEP]B
+Financial statements prepared by a voluntary health and welfare nongovernmental not-for-profit organization must report expenses by the following classification(s): Functional Natural<n>A.Yes Yes<n>B.Yes No<n>C.No Yes<n>D.No No[SEP]A
+For an individual business owner, which of the following would typically be classified as a capital asset for federal income tax purposes?<n>A.Accounts receivable<n>B.Marketable securities<n>C.Machinery and equipment used in a business<n>D.Inventory[SEP]B
+According to COSO, which of the following is the most effective method to transmit a message of ethical behavior throughout an organization?<n>A.Demonstrating appropriate behavior by example.<n>B.Strengthening internal audit’s ability to deter and report improper behavior.<n>C.Removing pressures to meet unrealistic targets, particularly for short-term results.<n>D.Specifying the competence levels for every job in an organization and translating those levels to requisite knowledge and skills.[SEP]A
+Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?<n>A.As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.<n>B.As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.<n>C.As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.<n>D.As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.[SEP]C
+A company is considering a move to a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) offering instead of a traditional in-house application. Which of the following concerns is unique to SaaS?<n>A.Disaster recovery capabilities and documented recovery procedures.<n>B.User credential setup and control over the actions that employees can perform.<n>C.Allocation of software expenses and overhead charged to departments.<n>D.Ownership of processed data and costs of data migrations.[SEP]D
+Which of the following situations would not impair objectivity, integrity, or independence with respect to an audit client?<n>A.An auditor takes the client’s audit committee to Las Vegas for the weekend.<n>B.An out-of-town client takes the audit engagement team out to dinner at a renowned local restaurant.<n>C.An auditor provides client management with box seats for the season at a major league baseball franchise.<n>D.A client takes the audit engagement team on a two-day ski trip after the audit team worked for two consecutive weekends.[SEP]B
+Which of the following procedures should a user auditor include in the audit plan to create that most efficient audit when an audit client uses a service organization for several processes?<n>A.Review that service auditor’s report on controls placed in operations.<n>B.Review the service auditor’s report and outline the accounting system in a memo to the working papers<n>C.Audit the service organization’s controls, assess risk, and prepare the audit plan.<n>D.Audit the service organization’s controls to test the work of the service auditor.[SEP]A
+In the current year Vinton exchanged unimproved land for an apartment building. The land had a basis of $300000 and a fair market value (FMV) of $420000 and was encumbered by a $100000 mortgage. The apartment building had an FMV of $550000 and was encumbered by a $230000 mortgage. Each party assumed the other's mortgage. What is Vinton's basis in the office building?<n>A.$300,000<n>B.$320,000<n>C.$430,000<n>D.550000[SEP]C
+When the operating effectiveness of a control is not evidenced by written documentation, an auditor should obtain evidence about the control’s effectiveness by<n>A.Mailing confirmations.<n>B.Inquiry and other procedures such as observation.<n>C.Analytical procedures.<n>D.Recalculating the balance in related accounts.[SEP]B
+Lake Trust a simple trust reported the following items of income and expense during the year: Dividend income $2500 Taxable interest income 2000 Capital gains (allocable to corpus) 5000 Accounting fees (allocable to income) (500) Trustee fees (allocable to income) (750) What is Lake's distributable net income?<n>A.$9,500<n>B.$8,250<n>C.$5,000<n>D.3250[SEP]D
+An auditor of a nonissuer may not issue a qualified opinion when<n>A.The auditor lacks independence with respect to the entity.<n>B.Management prevents the auditor from observing the entity's inventory.<n>C.The entity omits the statement of cash flows from its financial statements.<n>D.The auditor's report refers to the work of an actuary.[SEP]A
+Which of the following factors most likely would be considered an inherent limitation to an entity's internal control?<n>A.The ineffectiveness of the entity's audit committee.<n>B.Collusion of employees in circumventing internal controls.<n>C.The lack of resources to monitor internal controls.<n>D.The complexity of the entity's electronic order processing system.[SEP]B
+The Houser Company has negotiated a $500,000 revolving credit agreement with Chitwood National Bank. The agreement calls for an interest rate of 10% on fund used, a 15% compensating balance, and a commitment fee of 1% on the unused amount of the credit line. Assuming that the compensating balance would not otherwise be maintained, the effective annual interest cost if the firm borrows $200,000 for one year is closest to<n>A.11.5 percent.<n>B.15 percent.<n>C.26.5 percent.<n>D.13.53 percent.[SEP]D
+Bale Co. incurred $100,000 of acquisition costs related to the purchase of the net assets of Dixon Co. The $100,000 should be<n>A.Allocated on a pro rata basis to the nonmonetary assets acquired.<n>B.Capitalized as part of goodwill and tested annually for impairment<n>C.Capitalized as an other asset and amortized over five years.<n>D.Expensed as incurred in the current period[SEP]D
+Smith Legal Services has offered to represent a plaintiff in a lawsuit for a retainer of $20000 plus 40% of any award over $20000. Smith expects to incur out-of-pocket expenditures of $15000 in litigating the suit. Possible court awards with their associated probabilities are: Award Probability $100000 0.7 $0 0.3 What is the expected value to Smith of the lawsuit?<n>A.$25,900<n>B.$27,400<n>C.$33,000<n>D.37000[SEP]B
+A bond with a five-year maturity, paying 8% coupons and with a face value of $100, is bought at 104.1 in year 0, when it is issued. If I need to sell the bond at the the end the third year, when its prevailing price is 82, what is my holding period return on this investment? (Assume coupons are not reinvested.) HINT: Accumulate all coupons.<n>A.24%<n>B.23%<n>C.-21%<n>D.2%[SEP]D
+What is the value of the tax shield if the value of the firm is $5 million, its value if unlevered would be $4.78 million, and the present value of bankruptcy and agency costs is $360,000?<n>A.$140,000<n>B.$220,000<n>C.$360,000<n>D.$580,000[SEP]D
+A CPA prepares income tax returns for a client. After the client signs and mails the returns, the CPA discovers an error. According to Treasury Circular 230, the CPA must<n>A.Document the error in the workpapers.<n>B.Prepare an amended return within 30 days of the discovery of the error.<n>C.Promptly advise the client of the error.<n>D.Promptly resign from the engagement and cooperate with the successor accountant.[SEP]C
+An auditor is using statistical sampling in testing whether cash disbursements were properly authorized. The sample results indicate that the sample rate of deviation plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate. Under these circumstances the auditor most likely would reduce the<n>A.Planned reliance on the prescribed control.<n>B.Assessed level of control risk.<n>C.Planned reliance on substantive tests.<n>D.Tolerable rate of deviations.[SEP]A
+When assessing an internal auditor's objectivity an independent auditor should<n>A.Perform tests of controls to determine whether significant internal control activities are properly maintained.<n>B.Analyze the risk factors that relate to misstatements arising from the misappropriation of assets.<n>C.Review the internal auditor's reports to verify that the conclusions reached are consistent with the procedures performed.<n>D.Consider the policies that prohibit the internal auditor from auditing areas where relatives are employed in key management positions.[SEP]D
+In the statement of activities for a governmental entity revenues such as charges for building permits garbage collection and dog licenses are reported as which of the following?<n>A.Program revenues in the category “Capital Grants and Contributions.”<n>B.Program revenues in the category “Charges for Services.”<n>C.General revenues in the category “Charges for Services.”<n>D.General revenues in the category “Capital Grants and Contributions.”[SEP]B
+How would the following ratios or measures be affected if a company issued additional capital stock for cash? Total debt to total assets Working capital<n>A.Increase Increase<n>B.Increase Decrease<n>C.Decrease Increase<n>D.Decrease Decrease[SEP]C
+Which of the following statements is the most significant characteristic in determining the classification of an enterprise fund?<n>A.The predominant customer is the primary government.<n>B.The pricing policies of the activity establish fees and charges designed to recover its cost.<n>C.The activity is financed by debt that is secured partially by a pledge of the net revenues from fees and charges of the activity.<n>D.Laws or regulations require that the activity’s costs of providing services including capital costs be recovered with taxes or similar revenues.[SEP]B
+Rune Co.'s checkbook balance on December 31 was $10000. On that date Rune held the following items in its safe: $4000 check payable to Rune postdated January 3 and not included in the December 31 checkbook balance in collection of a sale made in December. $1000 check payable to Rune deposited December 15 and included in the December 31 checkbook balance but returned by the bank on December 30 stamped "NSF". The check was redeposited on January 2 and cleared on January 9. What amount should Rune report as cash in its December 31 balance sheet?<n>A.$9,000<n>B.$10,000<n>C.$13,000<n>D.14000[SEP]A
+Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events?<n>A.Verify inventory pledged under loan agreements by confirming the details with financial institutions.<n>B.Inquire about the current status of transactions that were recorded on the basis of preliminary data.<n>C.Compare the financial statements being reported on with those of the prior year.<n>D.Trace information from shipping documents to sales invoices and sales journal transactions.[SEP]B
+The following information pertains to Baxter Co: Inventory at beginning of year $200000 Inventory at year end $300000 Cost of goods sold during the year $500000 What was Baxter's inventory turnover for the year?<n>A.1<n>B.1.5<n>C.2<n>D.2.5[SEP]C
+In planning an audit, the auditor's knowledge about the design of relevant internal control activities should be used to<n>A.Identify the types of potential misstatements that could occur.<n>B.Assess the operational efficiency of internal control.<n>C.Determine whether controls have been circumvented by collusion.<n>D.Document the assessed level of control risk.[SEP]A
+Prime Corp. is an accrual-basis calendar-year C corporation. Its current-year reported book income before federal income taxes was $300000 which included $17000 corporate bond interest income. A $20000 expense for term life insurance premiums on corporate officers was incurred. Prime was the policy owner and beneficiary. What was Prime's current-year taxable income as reconciled on Prime's Schedule M-1 Reconciliation of Income (Loss) per Books With Income per Return of Form 1120 U.S. Corporation Income Tax Return?<n>A.$320,000<n>B.$300,000<n>C.$283,000<n>D.280000[SEP]A
+If the correlation between Securities A and B is −0.20, and their respective standard deviations are 8% and 18%, what is the standard deviation of a portfolio with one quarter invested in A and three quarters invested in B?<n>A.8.70%<n>B.13.20%<n>C.54%<n>D.6.60%[SEP]B
+During the current year Cooley Co. had an unrealized gain of $100000 on a debt investment classified as available-for-sale. Cooley's corporate tax rate is 25%. What amount of the gain should be included in Cooley's net income and other comprehensive income at the end of the current year? Net income Other comprehensive income<n>A.$100000 $0<n>B.$75000 $25000<n>C.$25000 $75000<n>D.$0 $75000[SEP]D
+You are told an investment will generate income that grows at 5% p.a. forever when the market discount rate is 15%. If the investment’s next payout is $10, what is the value of the investment?<n>A.$1<n>B.$500<n>C.$100<n>D.$200[SEP]C
+Which of the following matters is included in a typical comfort letter?<n>A.Negative assurance on whether unaudited condensed financial information complies in form with the accounting requirements of the SEC.<n>B.An opinion on whether any fraud risk factors indicate significant incentive and opportunity relating to fraudulent financial reporting.<n>C.Positive assurance on whether there has been any change in capital stock or long-term debt since the date of the audited financial statements.<n>D.An opinion on whether the entity's internal control components are operating as designed in achieving their stated objectives.[SEP]A
+Which of the following characteristics most likely would heighten an auditor's concern about the risk of material misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting?<n>A.Management displays a significant disregard for regulatory authorities.<n>B.There is a lack of turnover of employees in the accounting department.<n>C.Monthly bank reconciliations usually include several deposits in transit.<n>D.Equipment is usually sold at a loss before being fully depreciated.[SEP]A
+The primary purpose of a not-for-profit organization's statement of activities is to provide relevant information to its<n>A.Resource providers.<n>B.Managers.<n>C.Beneficiaries.<n>D.State regulatory body.[SEP]A
+Kanji Company had sales last year of $265 million, including cash sales of $25 million. If its average collection period was 36 days, its ending accounts receivable balance is closest to . (Assume a 365-day year.)<n>A.$26.1 million<n>B.$23.7 million<n>C.$7.4 million<n>D.$18.7 million[SEP]B
+Palmyra Co. has net income of $11,000, a positive $1,000 net cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle, a $3,000 unrealized loss on available-for-sale securities, a positive $2,000 foreign currency translation adjustment, and a $6,000 increase in its common stock. What amount is Palmyra’s comprehensive income?<n>A.$4,000<n>B.$10,000<n>C.$11,000<n>D.$17,000[SEP]B
+On October 31, year 1, a company with a calendar year-end paid $90,000 for services that will be performed evenly over a sixmonth period from November 1, year 1, through April 30, year 2. The company expensed the $90,000 cash payment in October, year 1, to its services expense general ledger account. The company did not record any additional journal entries in year 1 related to the payment. What is the adjusting journal entry that the company should record to properly report the prepayment in its year 1 financial statements?<n>A.Debit prepaid services and credit services expense for $30,000.<n>B.Debit prepaid services and credit services expense for $60,000.<n>C.Debit services expense and credit prepaid services for $30,000.<n>D.Debit services expense and credit prepaid services for $60,000.[SEP]B
+Which of the following should a practitioner perform as part of an engagement for agreed-upon procedures in accordance with Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements?<n>A.Issue a report on findings based on specified procedures performed.<n>B.Assess whether the procedures meet the needs of the parties.<n>C.Express negative assurance on findings of work performed.<n>D.Report the differences between agreed-upon and audit procedures.[SEP]A
+Which of the following types of information would be included in total net assets in the statement of financial position for a nongovernmental not-for-profit organization?<n>A.Total current net assets and total other assets.<n>B.Total current assets and restricted assets.<n>C.Unrestricted net assets, temporarily restricted net assets, and permanently restricted net assets.<n>D.Unrestricted net assets, restricted net assets, and total current assets.[SEP]C
+According to the Bond Equivalent Yield (BEY) method, the yield on a $1,000, 13-week US Treasury bill purchased for $960 would be closest to .<n>A.16.0 percent<n>B.16.7 percent<n>C.17.0 percent<n>D.17.8 percent[SEP]B
+Joe is the trustee of a trust set up for his father. Under the Internal Revenue Code, when Joe prepares the annual trust tax return, Form 1041, he<n>A.Must obtain the written permission of the beneficiary prior to signing as a tax return preparer.<n>B.Is not considered a tax return preparer.<n>C.May not sign the return unless he receives additional compensation for the tax return.<n>D.Is considered a tax return preparer because his father is the grantor of the trust.[SEP]B
+A nongovernmental, not-for-profit organization held the following investments:<n>Investment Cost, Fair value (beginning of year), Fair value (end of year)<n>Stock A (100 shares), $50 per share, $45, $51<n>Stock B (200 shares), $40 per share, $41, $49<n>What amount of stock investments should be reported in the year-end statement of financial position?<n>A.$12,700<n>B.$13,000<n>C.$13,800<n>D.$14,900[SEP]D
+Strut Co. has a payable to its parent Plane Co. In which of the following balance sheets should this payable be reported separately? Strut's Plane's consolidated balance sheet balance sheet<n>A.Yes Yes<n>B.Yes No<n>C.No Yes<n>D.No No[SEP]B
+An entity prepares its financial statements on the income tax basis. A description of how that basis differs from GAAP should be included in the<n>A.Notes to the financial statements.<n>B.Auditor’s engagement letter.<n>C.Management representation letter.<n>D.Introductory paragraph of the auditor’s report.[SEP]A
+Lind Co.'s salaries expense of $10,000 is paid every other Friday for the 10 workdays then ending. Lind's employees do not work on Saturdays and Sundays. The last payroll was paid on June 18. On Wednesday, June 30, the month-end balance in the salaries expense account before accruals was $14,000. What amount should Lind report as salaries expense in its income statement for the month ended June 30?<n>A.$24,000<n>B.$22,000<n>C.$20,000<n>D.$18,000[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements is correct as it relates to changes in accounting estimates?<n>A.Most changes in accounting estimates are accounted for retrospectively.<n>B.Whenever it is impossible to determine whether a change in an estimate or a change in accounting principle occurred, the change should be considered a change in principle.<n>C.Whenever it is impossible to determine whether a change in accounting estimate or a change in accounting principle has occurred, the change should be considered a change in estimate.<n>D.It is easier to differentiate between a change in accounting estimate and a change in accounting principle than it is to differentiate between a change in accounting estimate and a correction of an error.[SEP]C
+A partner in a general partnership is usually not entitled to which of the following?<n>A.To participate in management.<n>B.To review accounting records.<n>C.To enter into a contract with a third party without the consent of the other partners.<n>D.To be liable only for personal negligence.[SEP]D
+Which of the following matters does an auditor usually include in the engagement letter?<n>A.Arrangements regarding fees and billing.<n>B.Analytical procedures that the auditor plans to perform.<n>C.Indications of negative cash flows from operating activities.<n>D.Identification of working capital deficiencies.[SEP]A
+In the financial statements of employee benefit pension plans and trusts, the plan investments are reported at<n>A.Fair value.<n>B.Historical cost.<n>C.Net realizable value.<n>D.Lower of historical cost or market.[SEP]A
+An accountant compiles the financial statements of a nonissuer and issues the standard compilation report. Although not specifically stated in this report, it is implied that<n>A.The accountant has not audited or reviewed the financial statements.<n>B.Substantially all disclosures required by GAAP are included in the financial statements.<n>C.The financial statements should not be used to obtain credit.<n>D.The compilation is limited to presenting information that is the representation of management.[SEP]B
+Plaid Pants, Inc. common stock has a beta of 0.90, while Acme Dynamite Company common stock has a beta of 1.80. The expected return on the market is 10 percent, and the risk-free rate is 6 percent. According to the capital-asset pricing model (CAPM) and making use of the information above, the required return on Plaid Pants' common stock should be , and the required return on Acme's common stock should be .<n>A.3.6 percent; 7.2 percent<n>B.9.6 percent; 13.2 percent<n>C.9.0 percent; 18.0 percent<n>D.14.0 percent; 23.0 percent[SEP]B
+A company invested in a new machine that will generate revenues of $35,000 annually for seven years. The company will have annual operating expenses of $7,000 on the new machine. Depreciation expense, included in the operating expenses, is $4,000 per year. The expected payback period for the new machine is 5.2 years. What amount did the company pay for the new machine?<n>A.$145,600<n>B.$161,200<n>C.$166,400<n>D.$182,000[SEP]C
+Which of the following items is not subject to the application of intraperiod income tax allocation?<n>A.Discontinued operations<n>B.Income from continuing operations.<n>C.Extraordinary gains and losses<n>D.Operating income.[SEP]D
+Skytop Co. a nonprofit entity is considering acquiring a machine for $80000 that will produce uniform cash inflows of $25000 for four years. Skytop evaluates capital projects using discounted cash flows at a cost of capital of 10% per year. Based upon the following table what action should Skytop take regarding acquisition of the machine and why? Future value of $1 for 4 years at 10% $1.464 Present value of $1 for 4 years at 10% $0.683 Future value of $1 ordinary annuity for 4 years at 10% $4.641 Present value of $1 ordinary annuity for 4 years at 10% $3.170 Acquire: Reason:<n>A.Yes Net cash flow is $20000<n>B.Yes Net future value is $36025<n>C.No Net present value is ($750)<n>D.No Net present value is ($8750)[SEP]C
+In return for a 20% partnership interest, Skinner contributed $5,000 cash and land with a $12,000 basis and a $20,000 fair market value to the partnership. The land was subject to a $10,000 mortgage that the partnership assumed. In addition, the partnership had $20,000 in recourse liabilities that would be shared by partners according to their partnership interests. What amount represents Skinner’s basis in the partnership interest?<n>A.$27,000<n>B.$21,000<n>C.$19,000<n>D.$13,000[SEP]D
+A shoe retailer allows customers to return shoes within 90 days of purchase. The company estimates that 5% of sales will be returned within the 90-day period. During the month, the company has sales of $200,000 and returns of sales made in prior months of $5,000. What amount should the company record as net sales revenue for new sales made during the month?<n>A.$185,000<n>B.$190,000<n>C.$195,000<n>D.$200,000[SEP]B
+Stone Co. had the following consignment transactions during December year 1: Inventory shipped on consignment to Omega Co. $36000 Freight paid by Stone $1800 Inventory received on consignment from Gamma Co. $24000 Freight paid by Gamma $1000 No sales of consigned goods were made through December 31 year 1. What amount of consigned inventory should be included in Stone's December 31 year 1 balance sheet?<n>A.$24,000<n>B.$25,000<n>C.$36,000<n>D.37800[SEP]D
+Dawn Corp. uses a standard cost system. During the year both the labor rate variance and the labor efficiency variance were unfavorable. Dawn wrote the variances off directly to cost of goods sold. If Dawn had allocated the variances to work in process finished goods and cost of goods sold instead what would have been the effects on current ratio and net income? Current Net ratio income<n>A.Increases Increases<n>B.Increases Decreases<n>C.Decreases Increases<n>D.Decreases Decreases[SEP]A
+While performing certain nonaudit services for an insurance company, a professional accountant is asked to recommend the appropriate accounting treatment for a weather hedge transaction. The accountant has worked with financial hedges but has no experience with weather hedges. Which of the following actions by the accountant would be in compliance with the IFAC Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants?<n>A.Agree to recommend the appropriate accounting treatment after performing sufficient research on weather hedges.<n>B.Refuse to conduct the research and make a recommendation, because of insufficient experience.<n>C.Refuse to conduct the research and make a recommendation, because of a conflict of interest.<n>D.Agree with the accounting treatment recommended by the company’s hedge fund trader.[SEP]A
+Rigg Steele and Urco Corps. all accrual-basis calendar-year C corporations have only voting common stock outstanding. Rigg owns 85 percent of Steele and 40 percent of Urco. Steele owns 50 percent of Urco. Which group of corporations qualifies as an affiliated group and may join in the filing of a consolidated federal income tax return?<n>A.Rigg and Urco.<n>B.Urco and Steele.<n>C.Rigg Steele and Urco.<n>D.An affiliated group does not exist.[SEP]C
+A CPA has been requested by a former audit client to reissue the auditor's report for the prior period. Before reissuing the report, the CPA should<n>A.Obtain a letter of representation from the former client's management.<n>B.Make inquiries of the former client's attorney regarding pending litigation.<n>C.Review the former client's records to verify its compliance with debt and loan agreements.<n>D.Consider whether there is substantial doubt about the former client's ability to continue as a going concern.[SEP]A
+A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?<n>A.Governmental fund financial statements.<n>B.Government-wide financial statements.<n>C.Proprietary fund financial statements.<n>D.Fiduciary fund financial statements.[SEP]C
+In which of the following situations would there be inelastic demand?<n>A.A 5% price increase results in a 3% decrease in the quantity demanded.<n>B.A 4% price increase results in a 6% decrease in the quantity demanded.<n>C.A 4% price increase results in a 4% decrease in the quantity demanded.<n>D.A 3% price decrease results in a 5% increase in the quantity demanded.[SEP]A
+Bay Co. incurred legal fees in defending its patent rights. These legal fees should be capitalized when the outcome of the litigation is Successful Unsuccessful<n>A.Yes Yes<n>B.Yes No<n>C.No No<n>D.No Yes[SEP]B

datasets/MMLU/public_relations.txt

+Which common public relations tactic involves sending journalists on visits to appropriate locations?<n>A.Media release<n>B.Media tour<n>C.Press room<n>D.Promotional days/weeks[SEP]B
+You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?<n>A.Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.<n>B.Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.<n>C.Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.<n>D.Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.[SEP]B
+In public relations, ________ deals with an organization's ability to satisfy and create a positive experience for its consumers.<n>A.community relations<n>B.consumer relations<n>C.employee relations<n>D.public issues[SEP]B
+In what year did the BBC start broadcasting radio?<n>A.1917<n>B.1922<n>C.1925<n>D.1927[SEP]B
+________ advertising campaigns are focused on gathering support for a particular message or cause.<n>A.Product-oriented<n>B.Person-oriented<n>C.Idea-oriented<n>D.Message-oriented[SEP]C
+Why should a successful public relations counselor continually review present and future realities for an organization?<n>A.to develop a vision statement<n>B.to interpret trends for management<n>C.to interpret the organization's business plan<n>D.to consider the role public relations might play[SEP]B
+Which of these definitions best describes the 'spiral of silence'?<n>A.When victims of abuse remain silent about the abuse<n>B.When people hide their opinions if they do not agree with the majority<n>C.When people hide their opinions if they are in disagreement with their close peers or family members<n>D.When public relations uses opinion poll results to generate support for a particular issue[SEP]A
+What two elements do the planning models of Hendrix (2002), Kendall (1999), Merston (1963) and Parkinson and Ekachai (2006) have in common?<n>A.Research and evaluation<n>B.Strategy and evaluation<n>C.Strategy and implementation<n>D.Objectives and implementation[SEP]A
+At which stage in the planning process are the objectives decided on?<n>A.Defining the program<n>B.Planning the program<n>C.Taking action and implementing ideas<n>D.Evaluation of the program[SEP]B
+Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?<n>A.ingratiation<n>B.downplaying<n>C.distancing<n>D.nonexistence[SEP]B
+How much has the number of practitioners working in consultancies in the UK grown since 25 years ago?<n>A.It hasn't<n>B.Doubled<n>C.Tripled<n>D.Quadrupled[SEP]C
+Which statement is NOT true of both issues management and crisis management?<n>A.They both require research monitoring.<n>B.They both deal with acute risks.<n>C.New organizational practices are developed as a result of each.<n>D.Both have the potential to damage an organisation's reputation.[SEP]B
+In what year did the BBC start broadcasting radio?<n>A.1917<n>B.1922<n>C.1925<n>D.1927[SEP]B
+How many regional newspapers are there in the UK?<n>A.270<n>B.600<n>C.2,800<n>D.5,200[SEP]C
+According to Esman (1972), which publics are related to the organisation through shared industrial interests?<n>A.Enabling<n>B.Functional<n>C.Normative<n>D.Diffused[SEP]C
+Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?<n>A.Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.<n>B.Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.<n>C.Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.<n>D.Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.[SEP]C
+Which of the following entities cannot sue for libel?<n>A.A politician<n>B.A house of worship<n>C.A government institution<n>D.A publicly-traded company[SEP]C
+Which author emphasised strategy as achieving competitive advantage for an organization?<n>A.Steyn (2003)<n>B.Gregory (2006)<n>C.Cutlip et al (2006)<n>D.Henry (2006)[SEP]D
+Which statement is true about focus group research?<n>A.The participants should be selected at random.<n>B.It is an example of a formal research tool for practitioners.<n>C.The information can be generalized to describe a larger population.<n>D.The findings generate qualitative data that can be used to develop surveys.[SEP]D
+You are the community relations director for a public water utility that has been targeted by a group of activists opposed to adding fluoride to drinking water. The activists are waging an intense internet campaign against the practice. Your utility has overwhelming evidence of the health benefits to fluoridated water. The manager of the utility asks you to initiate a blog to get the health message out. What is the most appropriate course of action?<n>A.Use utility employees to write the blog, posing as dentists and physicians.<n>B.Recruit a group of volunteer dentists and physicians to write the blog under their own identities with no reference to the utility.<n>C.Write the blog yourself, identifying yourself as an employee of the utility, and quote the scientific opinions of a variety of sources.<n>D.Compensate a group of dentists and physicians to write the blog, identifying the utility as the sponsor of the blog but without disclosing the compensation.[SEP]C
+Within which area of public relations is likely to involve lobbying?<n>A.Corporate<n>B.Financial relations<n>C.Public affairs<n>D.Business to business[SEP]C
+During which step of the Chase Jones model of issues management should the strengths and weaknesses of the organisation be reviewed?<n>A.Identification<n>B.Analysis<n>C.Strategy<n>D.Evaluation[SEP]B
+As the single-person public relations staff of a public transit agency, you are tasked with increasing the number of people who ride your buses each month. Your target audiences are lower-income individuals, college students, people with basic educations and people for whom English is a Second Language. When preparing to craft a primary message, what should you do first?<n>A.Consider the comprehension level of all of the target audiences.<n>B.Consider how riding the bus could similarly affect all of the target audiences.<n>C.Consider which mediums would most effectively reach all of the target audiences.<n>D.Consider the geographic locations where all of the target audiences live and work.[SEP]B
+A book launch would be what kind of common tactic?<n>A.Competition<n>B.Event<n>C.Award<n>D.Sponsorship[SEP]B
+Newsletters generally fall in to which writing category?<n>A.Media writing<n>B.Personal writing<n>C.Business writing<n>D.Promotional writing[SEP]D
+The process of identifying publics who are involved and affected by a situation central to an organization is called a(n)<n>A.exploratory survey<n>B.situation interview<n>C.communication audit<n>D.stakeholder analysis[SEP]D
+Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?<n>A.Representing clients using new social media environments<n>B.Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers<n>C.Training staff to use social media<n>D.Staying abreast of changing technology[SEP]D
+Which of these ways a business impacts on the world do stakeholders NOT normally look at?<n>A.Workforce development<n>B.Impact on local communities<n>C.Impact on the environment<n>D.Financial performance[SEP]D
+The ________ part of a PR campaign includes proactively planning a response strategy, implementing that strategy in the event of a crisis, evaluating the crisis response, and revising the initial response strategy in an effort to improve for future crises.<n>A.public issues<n>B.crisis management<n>C.consumer relations<n>D.community relations[SEP]B
+In the Westley and MacLean model of communication, which role describes the way in which the public obtain or receive the message?<n>A.The advocacy role<n>B.The channel's role<n>C.The gatekeeper role<n>D.The behavioural role[SEP]B
+Which guerrilla marketing technique involves the spreading of a message about a product issue or service through online peer-to peer communication?<n>A.Fan pages<n>B.Street activities<n>C.Grassroots marketing<n>D.Viral campaigns[SEP]D
+A ________ campaign occurs when people from two or more opposing sides of an argument have emotional convictions about a decision that has the power to impact their lives.<n>A.public relations<n>B.public issues<n>C.crisis management<n>D.consumer relations[SEP]B
+The Web was effectively invented by Berners-Lee in which year?<n>A.1980<n>B.1989<n>C.1991<n>D.1993[SEP]C
+Internet traffic is expected to grow by 400% in the next few years. What is predicted to be the main driver of this?<n>A.Online consumer goods purchases<n>B.Video<n>C.Music<n>D.Online auctions[SEP]B
+The goal of ________ advertising is to promote a specific product and service to a target audience.<n>A.person-oriented<n>B.product-oriented<n>C.profit-oriented<n>D.idea-oriented[SEP]B
+Which of these types of survey question seeks qualitative information?<n>A.Likert scale<n>B.Multiple choice<n>C.Open-ended<n>D.Yes/No[SEP]C
+The American flag is an example of a<n>A.stereotype<n>B.semantic device<n>C.symbol<n>D.message[SEP]C
+Approximately half of all public relations practitioners work in<n>A.government<n>B.business and commercial areas<n>C.health care and hospitals<n>D.public relations firms[SEP]B
+You seek the counsel of one of your peers who designed and implemented a communication program that resulted in the successful permitting of an automotive recycling center, despite strong opposition from community organizations. You have to design a program to win approval for a similar project proposed by your company. Your peer gives you a brief piece of advice that succinctly describes the foundation of his successful program. What is most likely your peer's advice for a successful communication program?<n>A.Solve their problems<n>B.Kill them with kindness<n>C.Expose them to ridicule<n>D.Overwhelm them with facts[SEP]A
+Which of these publics does NOT feature in Grunig and Hunt's (1984) situational theory of publics?<n>A.Latent<n>B.Dormant<n>C.Aware<n>D.Active[SEP]B
+Which of these qualities is NOT listed as something to consider when choosing an opinion leader for a public relations campaigns?<n>A.Reputation<n>B.Impact<n>C.Familiarity with subject or issue<n>D.Ability to reach people[SEP]C
+According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is the situation analysis done and used to form objectives and implementation plans?<n>A.Inputs<n>B.Outputs<n>C.Outtakes<n>D.Outcomes[SEP]A
+Which factors are mentioned that influence media coverage of a story?<n>A.Content, quality of source, relevance<n>B.Timing, content, media liaison<n>C.Content, quality of source, human interest angle<n>D.Timing, relevance, political slant[SEP]B
+What is the primary reason that you, as a public relations manager, should insist on prioritizing and scheduling activities?<n>A.to help the department stay focused on its strategic plan<n>B.to ensure that projects that are important to the CEO always have first priority<n>C.to ensure that the department's events and public relations activities are not neglected<n>D.to make it easier for other departments to understand the responsibilities of the public relations department[SEP]A
+According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage are opinion polls most useful?<n>A.Inputs<n>B.Outputs<n>C.Outtakes<n>D.Outcomes[SEP]C
+Tyler and his wife have been won over by the advertising campaign supporting Stan Johnson, who is running for mayor, so they put a 'Vote for Stan Johnson in November' sign in their front yard. Tyler and his wife are engaging in ________, the third step of the advertising campaign.<n>A.identification<n>B.legitimacy<n>C.penetration<n>D.participation[SEP]D
+No-Wait Weight Loss, a diet pill brand, promises its potential consumers that if they take one pill once a day they will lose weight without having to change their diet or start exercising. However, many people who have used the product have complained that they haven't lost weight, and some have even gained weight. No-Wait Weight Loss has been unsuccessful in the ________ stage of the advertising campaign.<n>A.distribution<n>B.penetration<n>C.participation<n>D.identification[SEP]A
+What World War I-era organization introduced decentralized publicity "drives" as a strategy to mobilize U.S. public opinion to support the war?<n>A.The Creel Committee<n>B.The Red Cross<n>C.The Council on Public Relations<n>D.The Office of War Information[SEP]A
+When an attitude is communicated, what does it become?<n>A.An opinion<n>B.A belief<n>C.A behaviour<n>D.A point of view[SEP]A
+Which communication model describes the encoding and decoding of messages?<n>A.Shannon and Weaver model<n>B.Osgood and Schramm model<n>C.Westley and MacLean model<n>D.Maletzke model[SEP]B
+Which definition best describes media convergence?<n>A.The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.<n>B.The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.<n>C.The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.<n>D.Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.[SEP]D
+________ is most common to political campaigns because it focuses on raising the public's awareness about a particular person in hopes they will either support or not support the person.<n>A.Product-oriented advertising<n>B.Idea-oriented advertising<n>C.Person-oriented advertising<n>D.Platform-oriented advertising[SEP]C
+Which phase of public relations audience research is associated with summative evaluation?<n>A.Implementation<n>B.Impact<n>C.Attitude change<n>D.Preparation[SEP]B
+Which of these adjectives does NOT describe business writing?<n>A.Formal<n>B.Abstract<n>C.Personal<n>D.Objective[SEP]C
+Publishing and selling the creative work of others and protecting property rights of one's own creative work is regulated by<n>A.libel and publication regulations<n>B.access and deregulation<n>C.Securities and Exchange Commission<n>D.copyright and trademark law[SEP]D
+Where was the first British newspaper printed?<n>A.London<n>B.Oxford<n>C.Manchester<n>D.Edinburgh[SEP]B
+Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?<n>A.Circulation<n>B.Distribution<n>C.Traffic<n>D.Readership[SEP]D
+The ________ phase of the PR process consists of making decisions about which strategies and tactics will be used to respond to the goals of the organization and executing those strategies and tactics.<n>A.planning<n>B.implementation<n>C.evaluation<n>D.tactical[SEP]B
+In recent years social media has had a major impact on the practice of public relations. In which of the following areas has the impact been greatest and experienced most immediately?<n>A.Politics<n>B.Retail business<n>C.Automotive sales<n>D.Nonprofits[SEP]A
+Which traditional news criterion would you expect to be most important in public relations messages distributed through the mass media?<n>A.Proximity<n>B.Timeliness<n>C.Prominence<n>D.Impact[SEP]D
+Which area of public relations deals with emerging issues and their potential impact on an organization?<n>A.Public opinion<n>B.Issues management<n>C.Public affairs<n>D.Lobbying[SEP]B
+According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?<n>A.Inputs<n>B.Outputs<n>C.Outtakes<n>D.Outcomes[SEP]B
+You are director of communications for a local non-profit chapter organization that is an affiliate of a large national non-profit organization. You are frequently asked to secure media coverage using news releases provided by national headquarters located in another state. Which action would most improve your chances of success with these materials?<n>A.Use your relationships with local donors to gain coverage.<n>B.Localize the news releases for audiences in your geography.<n>C.Pitch the news releases as written, but include a quote from your chapter's executive director.<n>D.Remind editors that your organization is a national, prominent non-profit to which their publisher donates.[SEP]B
+What is the main purpose of licensing public relations practitioners?<n>A.To regulate access to posts in the field<n>B.To create an elite of public relations practitioners<n>C.To preserve the well-being of society<n>D.To achieve better wages for licensed practitioners[SEP]C
+According to Cutlip (2006), which stage of the communications plan should involve planning of what should be said and why?<n>A.Situation analysis<n>B.Strategy<n>C.Implementation<n>D.Evaluation involves assessing all aspects of the programme.[SEP]B
+In which era did muckraking journalism led to the widespread introduction of public relations in business?<n>A.Postwar Era, 1945 - 1965<n>B.Roosevelt Era, 1930 - 1945<n>C.Booming Twenties Era, 1919 - 1929<n>D.Seedbed Era, 1900 ' 1917[SEP]D
+Leslie is a disgruntled employee who walks into her place of employment and shoots three people, killing two and critically injuring the other. What is Leslie's behavior an example of?<n>A.workplace violence<n>B.organizational misdeeds<n>C.megadamage<n>D.crisis management[SEP]A
+Psychographics refers to<n>A.individual values, lifestyles and characteristics<n>B.individual sex, age, race and income statistics<n>C.potential influence<n>D.all of the above[SEP]A
+In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?<n>A.Clients' questions about costs<n>B.Resistance to outside advice<n>C.Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems<n>D.Personality conflicts[SEP]A
+A 2008 survey showed that what percentage of the world's largest companies are reporting their corporate responsibility?<n>A.50%<n>B.60%<n>C.70%<n>D.80%[SEP]D
+In recent research, the 14,000 stories that could be accessed on Google News' front page in a day pertained to how many actual news events?<n>A.18<n>B.24<n>C.326<n>D.9,574[SEP]B
+Who argued that if an organization did not affect a public then there was no need for a practitioner to consider that public in its communications?<n>A.Cutlip (2006)<n>B.Leitch and Neilson (2001)<n>C.Amaral and Phillips (2010)<n>D.Grunig and Hunt (1984)[SEP]D
+Which form of communication is most effective in forming or changing predispositions toward an issue?<n>A.Interpersonal<n>B.Media<n>C.Group<n>D.Public[SEP]B
+Which statement describes an idea from utilitarianism?<n>A.What is right and what is wrong are predetermined.<n>B.People should be treated as an end, not a means to an end.<n>C.The greatest good for the greatest number.<n>D.Those better off should give to people who are not as well off.[SEP]C
+Which type of measurement is the most effective choice for evaluating a campaign's impact on audience attitudes?<n>A.preparing a content analysis of media coverage<n>B.studying the content of blog postings about your issue<n>C.analyzing pre and post sales reports for changes in sales<n>D.conducting a pre and post analysis of constituents' opinions[SEP]D
+There are three basic types of persuasive advertising campaigns. Which of the following is NOT one of them?<n>A.Product-oriented<n>B.Person-oriented<n>C.Idea-oriented<n>D.Result-oriented[SEP]D
+Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?<n>A.One-quarter<n>B.One-half<n>C.Two thirds<n>D.Almost all[SEP]C
+When a campaign becomes noticed and unavoidable, it has achieved the ________ stage.<n>A.participation<n>B.penetration<n>C.distribution<n>D.identification[SEP]B
+A(n) ________ campaign is a paid form of impersonal communication, concerned with selling specific products, services, brands, images, and lifestyles to the public.<n>A.public persuasive<n>B.public relations<n>C.advertising<n>D.consumerism[SEP]C
+Which statement is true about an open systems model of public relations in an organization?<n>A.It adapts to changing organizational environments.<n>B.It adopts the policy of transparency to build public trust.<n>C.It focuses on removing communication barriers between its business divisions.<n>D.It communicates with its publics frequently to effect change outside the organization.[SEP]A
+Which law restricts corporate communications for publicly traded companies before and during the period that new securities are being registered?<n>A.Securities Act of 1933<n>B.Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002<n>C.Investment Advisers Act of 1940<n>D.Investment Company Act of 1934[SEP]A
+Which of these phrases refers specifically to a crisis, rather than an issue?<n>A.A gap between corporate and stakeholder expectations.<n>B.When an organization's trading is interrupted.<n>C.Can be avoided with constant monitoring and relationship building.<n>D.It happens suddenly.[SEP]D
+Watson and Noble (2005) lay out a five-step model for circular evaluation. At which step should pre-testing of strategy and tactics be carried out?<n>A.1<n>B.2<n>C.3<n>D.4[SEP]C
+Which of these sites offers 'microblogging?<n>A.YouTube<n>B.Facebook<n>C.Wikipedia<n>D.Twitter[SEP]D
+Within which area of public relations do tactics relate to promotion of the overall organisation?<n>A.Corporate<n>B.Internal communications<n>C.Financial relations<n>D.Business to business[SEP]A
+Emma is browsing a popular website when she runs across the story of a well-known actor who was recently pulled over for speeding and driving down the wrong side of the street. It turns out he had been drinking, and the arresting police officer found drugs in the car. The actor's publicist issued a statement claiming the actor was just tired and that the drugs belonged to someone else. Emma can't help having the impression that all public relations are ________ and occur only after something negative has occurred.<n>A.proactive<n>B.reactive<n>C.manipulative<n>D.manipulative[SEP]B
+Louis owns a chemical company that has been irresponsibly disposing of chemical waste and contaminating the community's water supply. Although he knew the company was cutting costs in its waste disposal, he publicly claims to have had no knowledge of the irresponsible practices, blames it on the company's general manager and fires him. What image restoration strategy is Louis using?<n>A.denial<n>B.evasion of responsibility<n>C.reducing the offensiveness<n>D.corrective action[SEP]A
+The ________ phase of the PR model consists of primary and secondary research about a client, identifying the target audiences for the campaign, proposing channels of communication and strategies to be used in the campaign, and constructing goals, objectives, messages, and themes.<n>A.identification<n>B.evaluation<n>C.implementation<n>D.planning[SEP]D
+The 'internal factors' portion of a firm's public relations situation analysis often includes<n>A.a communication audit<n>B.strategy suggestions<n>C.community focus groups<n>D.a listing of media contacts[SEP]A
+What is the major advantage of organizational publications?<n>A.Their ability to provide a revenue source for sponsoring organizations<n>B.Their ability to deliver specific, detailed information to narrowly defined target publics<n>C.Their ability to avoid the problems typically associated with two-way media<n>D.Their ability to give sponsoring organizations a means of uncontrolled communications[SEP]B
+Which outcome, from the evaluation phase of public relations planning, documents the impact a program had on its stakeholders?<n>A.the quality of the messages and activities<n>B.the number who change attitudes and opinions<n>C.the number who responded to communications<n>D.the number of messages and activities implemented[SEP]B
+The second stage of the advertising campaign is to establish ________, or to become known as trustworthy and believable.<n>A.legitimacy<n>B.identity<n>C.reliability<n>D.agency[SEP]A
+Which type of writing employs the pyramid structure?<n>A.Media writing<n>B.Personal writing<n>C.Business writing<n>D.Promotional writing[SEP]A
+During which step of the Chase Jones model of issues management should the organization's ability to lead the issue be assessed?<n>A.Identification<n>B.Analysis<n>C.Strategy<n>D.Evaluation[SEP]C
+Which of these should an objective NOT be?<n>A.Broad<n>B.Achievable<n>C.Measurable<n>D.Time-bound[SEP]A
+Which statement describes an idea from Kantian ethics?<n>A.What is right and what is wrong are predetermined.<n>B.People should be treated as an end, not a means to an end.<n>C.The greatest good for the greatest number.<n>D.Those better off should give to people who are not as well off.[SEP]B
+Which of these organizations is most effective in engaging with customers online?<n>A.Starbucks<n>B.Coca-Cola<n>C.Wholefoods<n>D.Redbull[SEP]A
+According to Russian philosopher Mikhail Bakhtin, in order to create ________, or a well-informed public, all communication about an issue must be ________, or take the form of a dialogue.<n>A.intelligentsia, democratic<n>B.democracy, dialogic<n>C.democracy, logical<n>D.democracy, bipartisan[SEP]B
+Your client has asked you to develop a public relations campaign to promote a college tuition savings program using new technologies. What is the most appropriate first step?<n>A.Research pricing and development costs for different services.<n>B.Develop a survey to discover which factors impact families' savings.<n>C.Conduct a situation analysis to gain a better understanding of the issue.<n>D.Hold a focus group to determine which messages are most effective for the program.[SEP]C
+According to "working theory," what is the step that occurs between an individual gaining information and changing behavior?<n>A.coorientation<n>B.opinion change<n>C.reaction formation<n>D.semantic encoding[SEP]B
+Segmentation of the population into psychographics, demographics and geodemographics is especially important in which public relations specialisation?<n>A.Issues management<n>B.Investor relations<n>C.Public affairs<n>D.Marketing communications[SEP]D
+What are two examples of an evaluation of outcome? <n>A.Change in attitude<n>B.Placement of message<n>C.Distribution of message<n>D.Size of attentive audience[SEP]A
+Which fashion house sued for damages to its reputation after being accused of stealing a design?<n>A.Dior<n>B.Givenchy<n>C.Chanel<n>D.Lacroix[SEP]C
+What public relations pioneer is credited with being the first practitioner to insist on "a place at the management table"?<n>A.Carl Byoir<n>B.Edward Bernays<n>C.Doris Fleischman<n>D.Arthur Page[SEP]D
+What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? <n>A.They offer flexibility of talents and skills.<n>B.They bring greater credibility to the work. <n>C.They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.<n>D.They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.[SEP]A
+Which of these activities might secondary research involve?<n>A.Conducting a content analysis<n>B.Conducting a survey<n>C.Observing people<n>D.Examining public records[SEP]D
+Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?<n>A.Circulation<n>B.Distribution<n>C.Traffic<n>D.Readership[SEP]D
+Early email was developed in which decade?<n>A.1960s<n>B.1970s<n>C.1980s<n>D.1990s[SEP]B
+According to Esman (1972), which publics help an organization to exist by lending authority or assistance?<n>A.Enabling<n>B.Functional<n>C.Normative<n>D.Diffused[SEP]A
+Which common public relations tactic can provide a 'halo effect'?<n>A.Placement on TV or radio<n>B.Stunts<n>C.Third parties<n>D.Sponsorship[SEP]D

datasets/MMLU/security_studies.txt

+Which of these principles is not an element of the responsibility to protect?<n>A.The responsibility to prevent.<n>B.The responsibility to react.<n>C.The responsibility to remain sovereign.<n>D.The responsibility to rebuild.[SEP]C
+Can environmental changes be reconciled with national security interests?<n>A.Environmental challenges to economic growth, such as natural resource management and employment, leads to diversification and research which may in the long-term result in technological advancements that bolster military programs.<n>B.Environmental changes can undermine national security in many ways; including weakening the economic base that determines military capacity. So if the natural capital base of an economy erodes than so does the long-term capacity of its armed forces. Any developments however, will be 'human' in impact.<n>C.The environmental problems encountered by countries are principally internal. External threats remain within a country's control: external military threats will remain unchanged and a primary concern.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements could be described as a liberal perspective on future energy security?<n>A.The global economy is interconnected, ensuring that energy security for one is dependent upon energy security for all. Thus all core powers have the same interests in maintaining and extending the conditions under which this market operates. As long as this economic order exists, conflict between major powers over energy reserves is highly unlikely.<n>B.Energy scarcity is likely to lead to future disruptions in the global system and the emergence of a 'new international energy order', characterized less by liberal free-market trading than by statism and neo-mercantilism.<n>C.Oil remains the lifeblood of the current order - an order that is based upon an unequal (and deeply unjust) distribution of wealth and power in favour of capitalist economic elites. Those who benefit most from the prevailing order will ensure that the flow of energy under favourable conditions continues to underpin their position in the global system.<n>D.Energy scarcity will signal a return to an era of greater geopolitical confrontation. 'Resource wars', in particular over energy sources, present a clear possibility for a breakdown in international cooperation, as states begin to compete (and eventually conflict) over the control of major reserves.[SEP]A
+Which of the following is a common criticism of the human security concept?<n>A.Human security is neo-colonial.<n>B.Human security promotes global capitalism.<n>C.Human security is too broad.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+In what ways have governments responded to the threat of TNC post-Cold War?<n>A.State responses to transnational crime have evolved in correlation to the increased threat posed to the integrity of the state. Organized crime has been regarded primarily as a national security threat to be addressed domestically. The institutionalized international approaches for information sharing have been predominately bilateral to the extent of bringing to justice perpetrators of crime that are seeking to evade justice.<n>B.With the expansion of TNC in the 1990s, states became increasingly willing to take measures to reduce the asymmetries between countries through harmonization of legislation and increasing police capacity and networking. The government response to transnational crime has focused on targeting the individuals and organizations perpetrating the crime, rather than the criminal markets themselves.<n>C.The US war on drugs has heavily influenced the construction of the governmental response to the growing perception that the phenomenon of TNC represents a national security threat. The approach has an emphasis on bilateral and multilateral cooperation on law enforcement combined with sticks on a bi-lateral basis to induce states to increase regulation and enforcement against TNC.<n>D.The emergence of norms governing the response to address the spectre of organized crime and to harmonize legislation occurred with the evolving Global War on Terror in which the terrorism-organized crime nexus resulted in the militarization of law enforcement: the use of military technology and intelligence as opposed to addressing the underlying conditions that facilitate illicit trade through an international institutionalist response.[SEP]B
+What potential problem for policy in the institutionalization of academe-policy interaction emerged?<n>A.The main disciplinary context for security studies theorizing was a move away from the disciplinary domination of political science toward multi-academe interaction from sociology, mathematics, psychology, natural and political sciences, and economics.<n>B.Policy-academe developments have resulted in the modification of the role of think tanks away from policy towards politicization resistant theory.<n>C.Security studies has been marked by the gradual "IR-ification" of the discipline. Security studies became one of International Relations' (IR's) two pillars, the second being International Political Economy. Henceforth IR became the main disciplinary context in which security studies was deliberated.<n>D.Think tanks and policymakers are increasingly interrelated. The institutional blurring between universities, think tank, and policy has resulted in policy mergers at every level.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not one of the 10 steps of the Washington Consensus?<n>A.Fiscal Discipline: budget deficits of no more than 2 per cent of gross domestic product (GDP).<n>B.Tax Reform: broadening the tax base, cut marginal tax rates, improve tax administration.<n>C.Property Rights: legal reforms to secure property rights without excessive costs and to regularize the informal sector.<n>D.Nationalization: state enterprises should be protected.[SEP]D
+Which of the following concepts does NOT form part of the technical discourse on cyber-security?<n>A.Business networks<n>B.Computer experts<n>C.Anti-virus industry<n>D.Computer networks[SEP]A
+What are the characteristics and manifestations of the strategy adopted by the USA in pursuit of energy security?<n>A.The deployment of troops in the Persian Gulf is part of the USA's attempt to secure its dominance in the oil-rich region.<n>B.All of these options.<n>C.The USA has sought to assert its primacy vis-à-vis friendly and rival powers, through the deployment of troops and other interventions.<n>D.The USA has actively sought to stabilize oil-rich friendly political actors and secure the economic and political status quo.[SEP]B
+In what ways do theories of conventional and critical social constructivism differ?<n>A.Conventional constructivists view constructivism as a bridge between rationalist and reflectivist approaches, enabling both to benefit from the insights of the other. Conversely, critical constructivists argue that this approach simply reproduces the binary distinctions that characterize positivist methodology.<n>B.Critical constructivism regards the strength of social constructivism to be its ability to bridge rationalist and reflectivity approaches. Conversely, social constructivists regard this as an unhelpful regression to positivist binary frameworks of analysis.<n>C.Conventional constructivism refers to the earlier works of social constructivist theorists that are characterised by a rejection of positivist methodology. Critical constructivists challenge these theories, embracing positivist methodologies in their work.<n>D.Social constructivism is best understood as a uniform approach to the construction of social identities and security; although distinctions exist within the field, these are not easily defined as distinctive separate approaches.[SEP]A
+Considering commerce and marketing, which of the following present the most significant obstacle to developing IT security?<n>A.There is no direct return on investment in building security systems.<n>B.Security systems are detrimental to usability and can make IT systems less functional, and therefore less attractive to the consumer.<n>C.There is pressure to reduce the time it takes to get a new IT product or system onto the market, so security systems are sacrificed in order to reduce the time-to-market.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following best describes the 'Orient' according to Edward Said?<n>A.The Orient is a constructed subject that is imagined as inferior, irrational, and backward, in comparison to the West.<n>B.The Orient is a geographical term once used to describe the east Asia.<n>C.The Orient is an imagined concept that must be rejected by scholars in order to analyse security.<n>D.Where there is an imbalance of power, the Orient is the dominant intellectual force or otherwise superior party.[SEP]A
+How can we best describe liberalism?<n>A.Liberalism is a fundamentally pessimistic approach that regards the international system as destined to the escalation of conflict. It is the dominant conception in the practice of international politics.<n>B.Liberalism is a novel conception in the theory of international politics. It is an optimistic approach that defines the ways in which states should relate to one another, particularly during conflict situations.<n>C.Liberalism is an optimistic approach, offering an orientation for the better conduct of international affairs in the belief that a more peaceful world is possible. It is the dominant conception in the practice of international politics.<n>D.Liberalism does not exist as a mainstream theory within International Relations, but rather offers a set of guidelines and advice for states and political actors wishing to accrue power within the international system independently from the restrictions of traditional security paradigms.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not one of the unifying principles of Critical Security Studies, as defined by Krause?<n>A.Principle actors are social constructs that are made through political practices.<n>B.Natural-science methodology is the best way to study social science, interpretive methodologies lack the coherence required for in-depth analysis.<n>C.Knowledge of the social world is not objective, as there is no divide between the social world and knowledge of that world.<n>D.The purpose of theory is not explanation in terms of generalizable causal claims, but contextual understanding and practical knowledge.[SEP]B
+Considering 'offensive' and 'defensive realism', which of these statements is not correct?<n>A.Offensive realism defines the international system as an environment in which states seek to achieve security through the acquisition of power.<n>B.Defensive realism regards cooperation as the way in which states can achieve security.<n>C.Both defensive realism and offensive realism regard power and competition as a means by which security can be achieved for the state.<n>D.Offensive realism theorizes that states will pursue hegemony where possible.[SEP]C
+Following the terrorist attacks of 9/11, what is the predominant paradigm in security and threat perception and to what extent is it an adequate response?<n>A.The security paradigm has been the development of multi-level analysis, to aid the understanding of disempowerment and to promote peace research involvement by NGOs, policy-makers, and the academic community.<n>B.The security paradigm of US led strategy has been the undertaking of short-term measures, many of which are drawn from research of the peace studies community. They focus on peace-keeping, peace-making, and structural change for preventing further conflict.<n>C.The security paradigm of recent years has been to some extent a reversion to 'liddism'; keeping the lid on a potentially fractured international system, without redress to the critical underlying causes of the problems.<n>D.The dominant approach to security studies has been a US led initiative which recognizes the need to undertake responsibility for inter-governmental cooperation, particularly for the commitment towards ethical intervention and for securing peaceful transformations alongside demilitarization of the international community.[SEP]C
+In what ways has the concept of environmental security been contested?<n>A.Analysis of environmental security is understood as the integrity of the whole ecological system whose primary threat is human activity. However, it radically challenges security thinking in that it demands a shift in the reason for action from national security interest to the welfare of the entire social-ecological system of the planet.<n>B.Environmental security contends that the principle threat to the ecological integrity is human activity and therefore humans can be secured to the extent that welfare is protected at the domestic level. The reason for action is to be found in individual and national interests.<n>C.The crossover of common insecurity issue areas is unlikely because not all problems are truly global. Not all states are equally responsible for environmental problems, nor is there such a thing as equality of risk. Systemic interdependence is unlikely to manage those security areas.<n>D.The ecological security and human security approaches to environmental security do not challenge the security community to consider alternative objects of security. Ecological security displays continuity with major interpretations of security, which typically centralize the security of the state.[SEP]A
+How can the origins of weak state insecurity be explained?<n>A.Weak state insecurity in a historical framework of analysis represents an abnormal state in the long term state-building process. Bloody and violent conflict between social forces is not consistent with the presence of the centralizing force with the capacity to attain monopoly of control over violence.<n>B.The utility of explaining weak state insecurity with a comparison to the historical conditions of state consolidation in Europe does not stand in the contemporary context of global society because of the pervasion of international norms to prevent violent conflict from manifesting in the consolidation process.<n>C.The contemporary state-building condition is constrained by the shortened time-frame operating within the established guidelines of international norms, a particular problematic rule of which is sovereignty. Thus, unlike some European entities which could not complete the state-building process and were absorbed into more viable units, weak states will remain quasi entities.<n>D.Weak state insecurity originated from the denial of sovereignty as the norm and the corresponding extension of the right to inviolability of statehood. Without protection under international laws the possibility of its national status being revoked and its territory being subsumed into another state threatens the consolidation of the state-building process.[SEP]C
+Which of the following best describes the 'subaltern' in postcolonialism?<n>A.Subaltern refers to those who are located geographically within the southern hemisphere.<n>B.The subaltern is a term applied to a specific group of scholars from the global south.<n>C.The subaltern refers to populations that are marginalised or outside of the hegemonic power structure.<n>D.The subaltern refers to the subcontinent of India.[SEP]C
+How do biological differences affect the roles that men and women must perform for the state?<n>A.Biology determines the female body as weak, ensuring that men continue to dominate state security apparatus in order to protect them. Women are aware of practical biological differences, and by accepting them they allow men to act as their protectors and care-givers. In return, women must act as protectors and care-givers to those less capable than themselves, their children, infants, the elderly, and the infirm.<n>B.The most intimate of human activities for women are more important than the demands of the political and religious male dominated elite. Biology determines, and woman's intimate choice exerts, that the considerable responsibility of reproducing a state's population becomes the duty of women alone.<n>C.Indiscriminate warfare is gender neutral and in contemporary conflicts there is no gender difference in levels of risk or duty. Men are just as likely to become victims of mass rape (as in the Democratic Republic of Congo or Balkans conflict) as women, and women are equally likely to be conscripted or coerced into military service.<n>D.Gender roles are a social construct; the values that we attribute to masculinity or femininity, such as strength or care-giving, are the product of shared social ideals rather than innate biological properties. Men and women are equally able to care effectively for children or to conduct violent and aggressive behaviour. However, social constructs of gender roles are pervasive, and women are likely to be victims of gender-based violence in conflict whilst men are more likely to be involved as perpetrators of violence.[SEP]D
+According to motivational realism, what might inspire the behaviour of so called 'greedy states'?<n>A.Human nature is fundamentally greedy.<n>B.All of these options.<n>C.State desire to increase wealth and prosperity.<n>D.State desire to spread its ideology.[SEP]B
+In which year was the seminal Human Development Report published?<n>A.1987<n>B.1997<n>C.1994<n>D.2004[SEP]C
+What does it mean to be secure?<n>A.Security means the coercive capability to stop an aggressor. Security is freedom from war, and the ability to deter or defeat aggressive attacks.<n>B.Security refers to safety from vulnerabilities (both external and internal) that could harm the state, societies within the state, and the values of those societies.<n>C.Security means freedom to enjoy the things that are most important to human survival and well-being, such as food, healthcare, and the opportunity to live well.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What has been the effect of biological weapons on national security in the international community?<n>A.The West, notably Canada, Britain, and the US, have conducted research into the weaponization of Anthrax, Tularemia, Q-fever, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, and anti-agricultural agents. However biological weapons were generally viewed in the West as lacking military utility. Instead strategists have concentrated on nuclear and conventional capabilities.<n>B.The Soviet Union carried out the most extensive research program into genetic engineering to weaponize naturally occurring diseases. However, the Soviets most likely saw their biological weapons program as a counter to the global-strike complex that was emerging in NATO in the 1970s or as a way to inhibit recovery in a nuclear exchange. Biological weapons programs should therefore be regarded in a Cold War context.<n>C.Biological weapons make use of living organisms or toxins to weaken or kill, but because these organisms and toxins occur in nature it makes it difficult to differentiate between naturally occurring disease and subversive activities which, moreover, make a state's capacity hard to verify.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+How are US 'military moms' important to a critical reading of security?<n>A.Mothers are not passive objects but the specific target of military recruiters who rely on their active engagement to fuel recruitment.<n>B.Examining the role of 'military moms' reveals the extent of gendered strategizing that is required to raise and sustain a military force.<n>C.All of these.<n>D.Mothers are indispensable to the exercise of military power but often overlooked in traditional security analyses.[SEP]C
+Weak states face a number of security threats, which of the following threats is the odd one out?<n>A.Warlordism and the assertion of the interests and influences of criminal gangs.<n>B.A sudden influx of refugees fleeing conflict from neighbouring states.<n>C.Coup d'état, military rebellion or mutiny; the violent intervention in politics by the state's own military forces, overthrowing and replacing the ruling elite.<n>D.Competition for authoritative power or coercion from strongmen.[SEP]B
+In what ways may TNC be regarded as a new concept?<n>A.Organized transnational crime groups are those structured groups randomly formed or otherwise but do not have a formally defined role for its members or continuity of membership but have a developed purpose for the intent of committing crimes.<n>B.Transnational organized criminal activities consist of profit driven crime for a high level return that may result in the subversion or infiltration of the legal economy through the reinvestment of illicit profits.<n>C.Transnational criminal organizations are those organizations whose modes of operation result in breaking domestic laws, e.g. murder, theft or money-laundering, underlined by the employment of systematic violence.<n>D.The terms 'transnational crime' and 'organized crime' are sometimes used interchangeably but not all transnational crime will be committed by an organized group nor will all organized groups engage in transnational crime. The pursuit of profit for illicit activity eludes definition and may include those individuals or businesses that engage in occasional transnational criminal activity but are otherwise legitimate operatives.[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements does not characterise our understanding of disease pandemics within the contemporary international political system?<n>A.Infectious disease transcends international borders and, to some extent, divisions of class, gender, education and wealth.<n>B.Whilst pandemics present a direct risk to national security, they also have the potential to undermine wider international stability.<n>C.Like terrorism, pandemics present a set of threats and risks that are diverse yet interconnected.<n>D.The existing mechanisms for monitoring and treating infectious disease within the international system are capable of effectively containing pandemic outbreaks.[SEP]D
+In what ways does gender shape the conceptualization of nationhood and conflict?<n>A.Although often missing from the traditional literature on war and security, women frequently serve the purposes of nationalise causes, with nationalism often presented in highly gendered and female terms, where women are symbols of statehood.<n>B.A sense of national identity can be developed through a variety of shared experiences, including war. The glorification of iconic national figures such as political leaders is not noticeably gendered and men and women generally perform the same types of roles within the public realm.<n>C.Measures of national pride and success are biased towards the glorification of female attributes such as the ability to bear children. The restriction of women to the domestic sphere creates a sense of national identity that is founded on a celebration of home life, feminine strength, and maternal characteristics.<n>D.When thinking about national identity, violence, physical strength, aggression, and the ability to use force are attributed as feminine characteristics. The male identity is imagined as being one of domesticity, nurturing, care, and child rearing.[SEP]A
+What might the pragmatic implications of biology be on post-conflict gender security?<n>A.Recent inquiry into the way in which women have been treated both in and after war has revealed a degree of ambiguity in the relationship between armed forces and civilian women. While women have often been the targets of violence by the enemy in conflict, it is also the case that they may suffer at the hands of their "protectors". This strengthens the argument for female soldiers to be engaged in certain types of peacekeeping work, particularly in post-conflict situations.<n>B.Perpetuation of violence against women in post-conflict society has devalued the claim that violence is more prevalent in militarized societies. Women were as protected by men in pre-war society as they were in post-war society.<n>C.Case studies revealed that in certain military families, levels of violence were dependent on the degree of psychological damage inflicted during fighting, however this was variable and dependent on the individual not on gender basis.<n>D.Recent inquiry into the way in which women have been treated both in and after war has revealed a degree of ambiguity in the relationship between armed forces and civilian women. While women have often been the targets of violence by the enemy in conflict, it is also the case that they may suffer at the hands of their "protectors" which may actually undermine liberal feminists' case of the "right to fight".[SEP]A
+How have the World Bank and International Monetary Fund, as international financial institutions (IFIs), affected the development of poorer countries?<n>A.Financial policies advocated by the World Bank and IMF were readily adopted by developing countries that sought to bring their economic development into line with wealthier nations. The IFIs focus has been on achieving human security and the promotion of development at a societal level.<n>B.Through the implementation of specific financial policies adopted at the bequest of global financial institutions, many developing countries have gained economic prosperity and the correlating levels of human security.<n>C.The World Bank and IMF tend to operate in an economic arena that includes only major financial institutions and wealthy states; coupled with a respect for sovereignty, the scope of such institutions does not reach to interference in national politics.<n>D.IFIs identified the economic failings of developing countries as being the result of political problems. Thus, IFIs adopted an approach that involved political and economic restructuring of these states, coercing governments into the adoption of specific financial policies designed to promote debt repayment and economic development.[SEP]D
+When may an issue fail to become securitized?<n>A.When the general public is not convinced of the legitimacy of the proposed threat.<n>B.When, following the discursive element of the process, extraordinary measures are not implemented.<n>C.When the securitizing actor is not granted the special right to implement extraordinary measure.<n>D.When the audience are convinced via the speech act or the securitizing actor but fail to grant that actor the special rights requested in order to address the proposed threat.[SEP]C
+What are the practical problems associated with applying coercive diplomacy in the West?<n>A.Different natures of the adversaries complicate the use of Western coercion. Their tendency to rely on irregular or asymmetric military strategies makes it hard to threaten or even defeat their opponent's military strategy. Those actors deny forces the ability to win quickly with little cost.<n>B.Increased verification capabilities brought in with the technological and communication revolution have resulted in a practical difficulty for practitioners, enabling the verification of tactical/temporary and strategic/lasting - only the latter of which constituting a compliance success. The capacity to verify processes have highlighted instances of non-compliance following inconclusive coercive diplomacy exchanges.<n>C.Coalitional coercive diplomacy is the only credible means for Western democracies to gain the sincerity required to make a threat of force real in the mind of the adversary. However, past efforts of coalitional building have proved to be extremely limited. Disagreements over the means and coordination of the policy often result in splits and consequently states are reluctant to employ it. Where it has been employed it collapses under the weight of its own inadequacy.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]A
+Some governmental regimes are reluctant to fully join the liberalist camp; which of the following is not a valid reason for this reluctance?<n>A.The dominance of Western ideologies can be regarded as contemporary imperialism.<n>B.Liberalism advocates the enforcement of certain values that are not shared by all political regimes.<n>C.The fear that cooperation may be recurring.<n>D.Adherence to liberalism does not guarantee the favoured treatment of state regimes over its citizens; other states may threaten regime security in their efforts to secure societal security.[SEP]C
+What are the themes that make post-structuralism a different field of study and why is it criticized?<n>A.One of the founding assumptions of Critical Security Studies is that theories about the world constitute that world and thus that theory, including security theory, has political effects. The consequence is that theory is the product of the system, and that analyses of the agent of security and the referent object is produced by its own practices.<n>B.Central to the political and critical nature of post-structural literature is the idea of fostering an ethos of democracy and an ethos of critique which is finite and attainable. It is to this end that we must strive, but one that can only be met under the conditions prescribed, that of true democracy.<n>C.A central notion of critique is to provide an answer to the problem of what it means to be critical. This invariably raises the question of revealing the interest behind knowledge claims with the goal of social change, what is accepted as the end of theory: that the practical and contextual understandings inform to whom knowledge claims serve.<n>D.Poststructuralism accepts the form and foundations for knowledge claims that dominate the security studies debate. This has brought it into confrontation with the critical studies community, having little to contribute to the understanding of the ways in which knowledge is constructed.[SEP]A
+How is capitalism defined or regarded within the HM paradigm?<n>A.HM regards capitalism as producing extreme insecurity in its disempowerment of the worker or labourer, from whom the ability to control labour or output is removed by the capitalist.<n>B.HM regards the assertion by liberalists and realists that the capitalist economic sphere is non-political to be a misrepresentation, serving the interests of the unelected capitalist elite.<n>C.HM regards the capitalist's accumulation of surplus value as a by-product of labour to be exploitation of those labourers by which the value was originally produced.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which statement best describes Booth's attitude toward constructivism and post-structuralism within Critical Security Studies?<n>A.Post-structuralism provides no basis for political action, being a dangerous mix of faux radicalism, relativism and obscurantism, whilst constructivism is an orientation to world politics rather than a specific political theory.<n>B.Constructivism offers a number of specific political theories applicable to Critical Security Studies but all of these lack the tenability required in security studies. Post-structuralist theories similarly lack the durability desired by CSS scholars.<n>C.Post-structuralism and constructivism are ill-defined theories that are better described as political orientations, applicable in vague terms but lacking the substance required by scholars in contemporary security studies.<n>D.Constructivism is too dangerous a mix of political ideologies, combining elements of radicalism and relativism. Post-structuralism is more of an orientation to world politics rather than a specific and applicable political theory.[SEP]A
+What is Critical Security Studies?<n>A.An approach to security that applies critical knowledge to established orthodoxies of security studies.<n>B.A specific theory of security that identifies clearly defined agents, threats, and processes.<n>C.A secondary term for the Copenhagen School of Security.<n>D.A study security in which the critical importance of the state, military and traditional security are maintained.[SEP]A
+How is a process of securitization completed?<n>A.A process of securitization is when an issue not included in the political sphere becomes politicized and is managed within the political system. A securitized issue is part of public policy requiring governmental action; decision-making, resource allocation and even communal governance.<n>B.A securitizing actor can argue for an issue to be securitised when it is outside of the political domain. An existential threat can be made a matter for state attention even when it is not included within public debate. Securitization refers to the recognition of the threat prior to its emergence in the political process.<n>C.Securitization refers to the move of issues from a politicized state to a heightened state of politics beyond the normal political domain of decision-making activities. Once placed above the political sphere it cannot be returned to the public sphere, having been translated into a state interest above normal proceedings.<n>D.An issue can be securitized, that is framed as a security question, when it is moved from the politicized to the securitized sphere. During the securitization process, the securitizing actor(s) use discourse to persuade an audience that the issue at hand is one of urgency and priority, and that it presents an existential threat to some referent object.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not a purportedly beneficial outcome of the globalization process?<n>A.The redistribution of wealth, addressing disparities in economic and resource allocation across the globe through a sense of greater 'interconnectedness'.<n>B.The growing sense of global community, resulting in super-national identities that result from populations feeling closer to one another.<n>C.The sharing of ideas, technologies and resources that can directly benefit human security, such as medical advancements.<n>D.A global market that has demonstrated the ability, if left unchecked, to reduce poverty and make substantial economic gains.[SEP]A
+How can extraordinary measures be defined as 'special' or 'extra' ordinary?<n>A.Where the state employs the use of force or violence this can be regarded as an extraordinary measure.<n>B.Those measures taken as a response to a securitized existential threat can be defined as extraordinary.<n>C.Those measures that exist outside the usual paradigm of the political realm.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]C
+What role does language play in the process of securitization?<n>A.By articulating an issue using the language of security that issue makes the transition from the discursive political realm to the security realm.<n>B.The speech act is the end point of the two-stage process of securitization, at this point the legitimacy of the existential threat is established and the right to employ special measures in addressing the threat is granted to the securitizing actor.<n>C.The presentation of an issue as threatening the survival of a referent object is referred to as a speech act. The process of securitization consists of this articulation of the speech act, and accordingly is referred to as a discursive model.<n>D.The articulation of an issue as a security threat is referred to as a speech act. This speech act is presented to an audience by a securitizing actor. This actor attempts to convince that audience of the credibility of the issue as an existential threat to a specific referent object. If successful, the audience is convinced and the securitizing actor is granted recourse to legitimately use extraordinary measures in response to the threat.[SEP]D
+Which of these is not a widely articulated or valid criticism of constructivism?<n>A.Constructivism lacks the ability to empirically prove its theories.<n>B.The rationalist foundations of constructivism create difficulties in applying its theories within a changing international system.<n>C.By regarding the state as the most important actor, constructivism neglects internationalization in a globalized world.<n>D.Despite rejecting causality, constructivists simply replace the material trigger of causality with ideas.[SEP]B
+In what ways is it possible to gain a definition of terrorism?<n>A.A terrorist attack is that which uses the threat or use of organized violence to achieve political objectives. This may include kidnappings and organized violence for financial gain, and such attacks can be undertaken by groups or individuals.<n>B.Organization is essential for a successful campaign to bring about the political goals that are being sought. An act of terrorism targets an audience that extends beyond the immediate victims and is characterized as being a weapon of the weak.<n>C.Terrorist violence is a form of psychological warfare that generates fear in a target audience by attacking members of that group. Selected targets are chosen at random from a cross-section of groups within the state ranging from political representatives, security forces, civilians or law enforcement. Random acts of violence contribute to the sense of insecurity and societal instability.<n>D.Terrorism is a broad concept that is understood to denote the threat or use of organized violence for the attainment of political objectives. The definition may therefore be inclusive of governments as targets or perpetrators and cases of war (hot and cold) where terror and counter-terror measures are tactics of either side.[SEP]B
+How does the social constructivist approach account for the process of militarization?<n>A.By regarding security as a socially constructed concept, constructivists assert that militarization is the result of governmental decisions based on shared values and cultural norms that underpin their conception of what constitutes a security risk. Accordingly, different governments will identify different threats and react in different ways.<n>B.Social constructivists tend to focus on the population rather than military as an area for study, thus regarding the process of militarization largely in terms of its impact on human security.<n>C.Social constructivists assert that the process follows a popular recognition of empirically definable threats; when it is recognized that an issue poses a real and valid threat, it warrants militarization.<n>D.In their uniform advocacy of human security and adoption of a human-centric approach to security studies, social constructivists regard militarization as a process that is detrimental to achieving wider security goals and actively encourage the demilitarization of the security system.[SEP]A
+Which of these statements best describes the HM approach to sectoral security analysis?<n>A.HM agrees with the idea that security can be viewed using a sectoral framework, and recognises the depth of analysis that is enabled by such an approach.<n>B.HM rejects Buzan et al.'s theory of sectoral security analysis, on the grounds that securitization is a product of a state-centric approach.<n>C.HM rejects the assertion by Buzan et al. that there are distinct and separate sectors of security, instead adopting a holistic view of security within which national and transnational class is an important factor.<n>D.HM favours the sectoral approach to security analysis, in particular prioritising the state as a referent object and drawing much of its theoretical foundations from the realist principles that underpin the sectoral approach.[SEP]C
+What was the importance of peace research during the 1980s?<n>A.Peace research was inter-disciplinary and politically orientated with immediate policy responsibility accountable to the major powers of the political system.<n>B.Peace research, in contrast to university IR, was under a great deal of pressure to deal with relevant issues with a high expectation of immediate delivery of policy answers.<n>C.There was a distance from policy responsibility but European security studies gained political relevance due to the politicization of security issues during the period defined by the peace movement.<n>D.The setting was simultaneously informed by political theory as the dominant discipline and isolated from developments in theory in the different disciplines.[SEP]C
+Which of these statements does not describe the liberalist conception of the international system?<n>A.International politics is not the same everywhere; it is only 'realist' in certain places at certain times.<n>B.The nation state does not exist as a unitary actor within the international system.<n>C.Nation states are not basically alike.<n>D.States are and should remain the sole actors to be considered in the study of International Relations.[SEP]D
+Which of the following might be considered part of the 'deepening and broadening' of security?<n>A.The nexus between identity and security.<n>B.War, the military, and the sovereign state.<n>C.Environmental changes.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+In what ways did game theory and deterrence theory mark an intellectual development in the 'golden age' of security studies?<n>A.Deterrence theory and game theory became highly influential within the academic world and gained centrality politically because the nature of the object allowed for a high degree of normative theorization which was accompanied by a mood of technological pessimism that fostered an ethos of critique.<n>B.The progressive research programs produced theories that actually formed their own reality of abstractions, the world of, 'secure second strike capability', 'extended deterrence' and 'escalation dominance'.<n>C.Game theory and deterrence theory as an intellectual development resulted in the trade-off between policy relevance/utility and theoretical abstraction/sophistication.<n>D.None of the above. The influence of deterrence theory was illusory. The build-up of nuclear weapons and first strike orientated policy was driven by the internal logic of maximizing firepower. Theory served as the smokescreen that belied the intent.[SEP]B
+In what ways will the changing global security environment shape the nature of developing conflicts in the twenty-first century?<n>A.Human migration will arise as a result of global inequalities in the distribution of power, wealth, and resources. Disempowerment of populations will lead to competition and violence, manifested in transnational movements; and environmental threats and resources scarcity will lead to conflict.<n>B.Economic interdependency between states will strengthen global security and lead to a reduction in international conflict. Human migration will lead to overcrowding and resource scarcity but this will be addressed by the technological advancements of developing states to which most migration will take place.<n>C.The primary cause of conflict, both at international and sub-national level will be based in ideological differences between populations as resources scarcity, population growth and human migration forces diverse identity groups into increasingly close contact.<n>D.Environmental concerns will be overshadowed by immediate threats to international security, posed by global economic crisis and the subsequent rise of fundamentalist ideologies and violence. Human migration will be managed within the current global economic system as poverty restricts movement although there is a limited risk of transnational revolt as a result of disempowerment and resource scarcity.[SEP]A
+Is the weak state security dilemma an inescapable condition?<n>A.The Global War on Terror has had a positive effect on the state-building project. The fight against terrorism has redirected international attention and resources towards eradicating insecurities as part of the recognition of the multilevel factors facilitating the emergence of terrorism. Specifically this involves the controlling of the proliferation of arms.<n>B.The problems of weak state insecurity have taken a low priority on the international agenda and solutions have not moved beyond the context of liberal multi-party democracy and free market capitalism. The problem thus far is that no one case of enforced neo-liberalism, either through conditionalities, regime change, peace-building, has succeeded in transforming a weak state into a strong state.<n>C.The failure of liberal reform has highlighted the increasing viability of the option of alternative forms of political organization beyond the state. Sub-state organizations are a practical solution to dealing with regions with endemic problems of weapons and poverty, whilst regional organization is a sustainable structural form in Africa and Latin America.<n>D.Weak states have embarked on a protracted and difficult process to attain effective status. Long term security strategies have resulted in the adoption of measures to counteract the worst of the effects including the establishment of multi parties, economic liberalization and membership of the international community.[SEP]B
+How might the recent global economic crisis be viewed as a challenge to the liberalist perspective?<n>A.Governmental cyberspace restrictions, in the form of censorship and monitoring, are increasing.<n>B.The crisis has revealed the failure of international cooperation to prevent a global catastrophe, in the form of massive economic collapse and contagion.<n>C.All of these options.<n>D.Increasing state involvement in key industrial and financial sectors, including nationalisation and state-funded development.[SEP]D
+What factors facilitated the institutional innovation of security studies?<n>A.The need for civilian expertise, a need driven by technological developments, resulted in a shift from targeted development of fast-changing technologies to deployment of a given technology.<n>B.Theory was necessary because nuclear technology was inherently more empirical, seen as what would be controlled by the bottom line of probable occurrences in a given conflict situation - the game of deterrence.<n>C.Broader political considerations about the potential implications of long-term mobilization resulted in a shift from tactical operations to long-term strategy.<n>D.The combination of nuclear weapons and Cold War political considerations required a highly cohesive, strong military leadership to coordinate economic, political and military planning.[SEP]C
+Which of the following are true of the Great Law of Peace of the Haudenosaunee Confederacy?<n>A.The Great Law alerts scholars to the problem of failing to sustain critique.<n>B.The case of the Great Law illustrates the importance of being critical of practices of research and knowledge production.<n>C.The Great Law is a challenge for traditional security studies, as it represents a proven non-state approach.<n>D.All of these.[SEP]D
+What has been the impact of nuclear deterrence on international politics post-Cold War?<n>A.There is a developing scholarly trend toward proliferation pessimism, a pattern which has gained momentum rather than subsided with the end of the Cold War. There is concern that accidental war may occur, either through misperception, psychological or technical problems that can lead to spiralling tensions which result in a failure of deterrence policy. In addition, normal accidents resulting from the inability of a state to capably anticipate human-machine interactions in the complexities of the international (and anarchical) system may also occur.<n>B.Proliferation optimists dispute the claim that nuclear technology leads to a propensity of the holding actor towards war. They do concede that there is the risk that terrorists acquiring the weapon could create an existential threat to the international system, although the threat is not yet a reality. Furthermore, the ability to retaliate can eliminate an opponent's potential gain.<n>C.Despite the recognition that the ability to retaliate (the secure second-strike capability) produces a situation known as crisis stability, there is no consensus on the impact of nuclear capabilities, whether a source of stabilization or an existential threat. However there is agreement that the spread of WMD capacity to non-state actors would be fundamentally detrimental to international security based on the recognition that existing deterrence strategies and capabilities do not address the use of nuclear weapons. Indeed whilst the possibility exists, states will have to heighten security efforts.<n>D.Deterrence has proved to have been a source of stabilization during the Cold War but proliferation pessimists contend that new states' development programs do not provide sufficient guarantees that the state sponsors will act as good custodians. Weak state structures might result in sabotage, accidental use, or even theft. There is also the problem of states developing technology under the guise of deterrence whilst having ulterior motives. Domestic pressures may result in a regime gravitating towards nuclear war fighting strategies to win a rapid victory and strengthen status.[SEP]C
+In what ways does the Ideal Policy framework explain previous understandings of the necessary conditions for successful coercive diplomacy actions?<n>A.In light of the difficulties Western democracies have - sustaining popular support in conflicts not threatening their vital interests - opponents will regard Western threats to fight a prolonged war in such a scenario as a bluff. In practice this means that the coercer must be militarily superior and capable of denying their opponent the ability to realize their agenda and impose costs that directly threaten their interests.<n>B.To maximize credibility a threat of quick defeat backed by the required military capability is insufficient. A deadline of compliance must accompany it. It follows that a failure to set a deadline for compliance will be interrelated as evidence that the coercer lacks the will to implement the threat.<n>C.Assurance against new demands must be included to enhance the prospects of success. The incentive to comply will be significantly reduced if fears are justifiably present.<n>D.All of these options. To make non-compliance too costly the coercer must threaten to defeat the adversary to deny him his objectives quickly and with little costs. The threat is designed to accomplish two things: fear of unacceptable escalation; to make the threat credible.[SEP]D
+In what way might postcolonial analysis use the term 'thick space'?<n>A.To describe the international as hierarchically ordered and comprised of a dense set of constructed political, economic, social, military and cultural relations.<n>B.To describe the international as a space generated by the knowledge and practice of Western powers to favour the so-called third world.<n>C.To describe countries that are oppressed or marginalised within imperial readings of IR.<n>D.To describe the power embodied by sovereignty and the Westphalian norms that underpin Eurocentric perceptions of the international.[SEP]A
+In which of these wars did the overwhelming technological superiority of one side lead to rapid defeat of its enemy?<n>A.Vietnam War.<n>B.Second World War.<n>C.First World War.<n>D.1991 Gulf War.[SEP]D
+Which approach or perspective dominates post-Cold War Security Studies?<n>A.An examination of the social processes by which groups of people construct something as a threat.<n>B.A agenda for peace; peacekeeping, peace-making and conflict prevention as priorities for avoiding military confrontations.<n>C.The re-addressing of past practice as a possible cause of insecurity.<n>D.The strategy for state security that is preoccupied with creating and maintaining a distribution of power in the system, beneficial in terms of maintaining security and stability.[SEP]C
+How can we define the role of the state in achieving human security?<n>A.The state is the most prominent threat in terms of committing violent acts against humans, thus directly threatening human security.<n>B.The state has the greatest material resources and power with which to secure the human referent object.<n>C.In the short term it is unhelpful to adopt a hands-off states and policy approach, as there are many current crises in which people need immediate relief from atrocities.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What is the relevance of behaviour in economic security analysis?<n>A.Economics as the science of individuals making decisions, and applying economic science to security, allows us to understand, predict, and respond to the behaviour of states and other security actors.<n>B.The growth of capitalism has catapulted the individual consumer to a place of extreme significance in shaping the global market. The behaviour of consumers dictates the nature of the global system.<n>C.Behaviour, as a social constructivist concern, is not relevant to economic theory or security theory in general.<n>D.The behaviour of states is governed by their economic interests, in terms of securing favourable trade agreements and building strong domestic markets. Thus, their behaviour is dictated by economic considerations.[SEP]A
+What long-term trends can be foreseen in the concept of environmental security?<n>A.In the post-9/11 reversion to traditional security thinking, environmental security as a concept is likely to enjoy continued attention from security analysts and policymakers.<n>B.Increasing evidence of the negative effects of environmental insecurity may increasingly govern national security interests and behaviour. The relevance will increase until national unilateralist initiatives are taken to retain the social organization of the nation which may have the adverse affect of increasing the prospect of conflict.<n>C.National security practices are the most effective means to achieving environmental security reforms to consolidate the socio-economic organizational base of the country against threat. The state on a practical level remains the most capable body - having the monopolization over the instruments of violence, and centralization of resources - to enter into trans-national agreements for the management of environmental constraints.<n>D.The impact of environmental problems seems unlikely to diminish so that the relevance of environmental security for policy will likely increase, particularly multilateral action on common security concerns to achieve forms of social organization that are ecologically sustainable. In some sense, current practices of national security are an impediment to achieving environmental security for all people.[SEP]D
+What is meant by the term 'energy security nexus'?<n>A.The 'energy security nexus' refers to the constant state of flux between energy supplies and levels of security that can be achieved by states that rely on these supplies.<n>B.An 'energy security nexus' exists where two states directly contend for access to the same, often limited, energy resource, such as oil reserves.<n>C.An 'energy security nexus' exists in the international system because the geographical distribution of energy supply and demand are not equal; thus states are drawn into complex and intertwined relationships with one another.<n>D.An 'energy security nexus' exists in the global system as a result of strategic planning by oil-rich states to ensure that the geographical distribution of supply and demand is not equal.[SEP]C
+It has been argued by Braun and Chyba (2004) that indigenous nuclear programs are making proliferation safeguards obsolete. In what ways, if any, can a case be made to support this argument?<n>A.WMD may provide the means to offset inferiority in conventional armaments compared to regional or superpower rivals. Possession of WMD may act as a deterrence to stronger opponents against potential threat, or be used to defeat their adversaries if engaged in combat. WMD capabilities may also be developed to gain automatic status and diplomatic influence amongst the international community.<n>B.Although there are fears posed by WMD proliferation that terrorists may gain the capacity to develop weapons, it would remain very difficult to construct even a primitive gun-type nuclear weapon. However, whilst nuclear capabilities may be elusive, international or domestic terrorist networks may have the resources to construct and use chemical, biological, and radiological weapons.<n>C.WMD vary vastly in terms of their availability, lethality, and destructive potential and the ease with which they can be manufactured. This means that the potential threats posed by each type of weapon are different. High yield, lightweight nuclear weapons use cutting-edge technology, whilst some chemical and biological weapons have been available for a long time. What separates WMD from conventional weapons is the potential to cause high level destruction. Because of the psychological fear possession can generate, WMD will remain highly desirable as a political weapon.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements is true within the postcolonial approach?<n>A.The international system is shaped through colonised discourse that establishes notions of certain states as inferior to others.<n>B.European practices of free trade and democracy are best suited to creating a peaceful and stable international system.<n>C.With the end of the Second World War and gradual dissolution of the British Empire, much of postcolonialism is redundant.<n>D.Colonial power exists only through the military actions of occupying states.[SEP]A
+What differences emerged with regard to theorizing on both sides of the Atlantic?<n>A.From a US perspective, it is common to regard the main voice of security to be external. The question of what should or what should not count as security issues and how to conceptualize security.<n>B.The European school is based on a hegemonic form of knowledge. Knowledge is conceived as the understanding of causal mechanisms in relation to the material on which they act.<n>C.The different forms of knowledge relate to a conflicting conception of the relationship to policy: the problem-solving tradition in US political science vs. the critical studies in Europe.<n>D.Theorizing has parallel theoretical forms of knowledge based on empirically substantiated cause-and-effect relationships.[SEP]C
+Traditional approaches seek to explain why and how states have sought security. Which answer best describes the approach of traditional Security Studies?<n>A.Traditional theories explain international politics as the distribution of power among members of an international system, and specifically as the balance of power amongst major states. The relative power and the constraints of a state are reflective of the security strategy of that state.<n>B.The traditional approaches emerged in response to the Cold War, and to the accumulation of tension and competition between the two Superpowers. Traditional theories seek to explain behaviour in terms of arms accumulation.<n>C.Traditional conceptions emerged to explain the clusters of norms and patterns of behaviour that result in management of conflict and cooperation in the international system, in specific spheres of activities.<n>D.Traditional approaches are concerned with sovereignty. Sovereignty is a legal status; it gives the state control over a specified territory, means it is free from arbitrary intervention, and is responsible to no higher authority. Traditional theories examine the patterns of behaviour and relative cooperation of sovereign states in the international system.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements is the odd one out?<n>A.Institutions that facilitate the reproduction of cultural values, such as churches and schools, can be used to control and strengthen those cultural values.<n>B.Political-nationalist strategies can be employed by the state to boost nationalist interests.<n>C.Engagement of military forces to expel certain social groups from within a state.<n>D.Secession allows a societal group to withdraw from a larger entity where it may be under threat from dilution or destruction.[SEP]C
+To what extent can societal identity be defended militarily?<n>A.If a threat posed by one group to another is military - particularly when linked to the defence of the historic homeland - armed response is required. At the intra-state level, many societal groups have no such means of armed protection and are compelled to employ non-military counter-measures.<n>B.Intra-state collectives faced with a political or military threat to their identity will form their own militia or defensive force as a means of protection. This results in the establishment of quasi-states which may undermine the territorial integrity of the nation.<n>C.Being aligned with the state, society has immediate and unequivocal access to the use of state forces (in the form of military retaliation) if there is a threat to societal security.<n>D.Societal groups do not face military threats; being constituted by identity and social cohesion, military forces are not engaged against societal groups in any meaningful way.[SEP]A
+Which of the following defines a Revolution in Military Affairs?<n>A.A coup in which established leaders are ousted by an internal military force.<n>B.A wholesale shift in the way warfare is conducted and understood.<n>C.A watershed in technological advancement, such as the creation of nuclear weaponry.<n>D.A watershed in technological advancement which alters the fundamental characteristics of war.[SEP]D
+What is the relationship between historical materialism and the global justice movement?<n>A.Historical materialism as a paradigm is opposed to the broad goals of the global justice movement, which advocates an expansion of neo-liberalism in the aftermath of the global financial crisis.<n>B.Historical materialism has an established history of supporting global justice and opposing inequality; during the Cold War it was the basis of opposition to repressive communist states.<n>C.Historical materialism does not provide any unique perspective on capitalism, and is more concerned with the history of capitalist trade than with exploitation or alienation of populations in the system.<n>D.Historical materialism can concern both human rights and economic rights. It has been an important part of anti-globalisation and alternative-globalisation movements, including the Occupy protests.[SEP]D
+What is the relationship between Westphalian sovereignty and humanitarian intervention?<n>A.In its advocacy of global political institutions, the Treaty of Westphalia defined state sovereignty as being subjective to the behaviour of the political or ruling elite in that state, prioritizing human welfare over arbitrary values of sovereignty and thus legitimising humanitarian intervention where necessary.<n>B.Theories of Westphalian sovereignty decree that principles of non-intervention are paramount to achieving security; this has been extended into the contemporary global security environment in which international bodies such as the UN condemn humanitarian intervention, regarding it as detrimental to state-centric security.<n>C.State sovereignty and principles of non-interference that underpin the Westphalian approach can be disregarded, provided that there is a consensus amongst international actors that human life within the state is at risk, and where that risk is from the actions of the state itself.<n>D.The international society is governed by norms of Westphalian sovereignty that advocate non-intervention and the respect of state sovereignty as a means of achieving security. These norms are enshrined in the Charter of the United Nations, which bans the use of force between states except in self-defence or when authorized by the UN.[SEP]D
+In what ways have post-Cold War developments undermined state authority?<n>A.The increased levels of globalization in trade, finance, and movement have produced an environment conducive to TNC by making it easier for criminals to move illicit profits and illegal goods, provide service, and smuggle persons across borders.<n>B.The wave of political transitions to democracy and economic transitions to free market capitalism since the 1980s - a phenomenon which frequently occurred simultaneously in the same country - have undermined state capacity to enforce rule of law and created new opportunities for organized crime groups to penetrate societies in transition.<n>C.The sharp increase in civil conflicts around the globe also created a new generation of refugees. These diasporas have provided the family and ethnic ties that help facilitate a transnational criminal enterprise.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What are the implications of recent technological change and development, according to peace studies?<n>A.Technological developments do not affect the majority of the world's population and so the advancement of telecommunications and digital media are not of concern to peace studies.<n>B.Digital information, media, and communications technology is likely to inspire greater harmony in the international system as the global population learns more about the world in which they live, and the lives of others around them.<n>C.With access to digital information, such as media and the internet, disempowered populations will become aware of their own exclusion and the inequalities of the global system. This could lead to widespread frustration and revolution.<n>D.Technological change and development is likely to strengthen the power of already dominant international players, and to reinforce the status quo of international relations.[SEP]C
+Inefficient balancing or buckpassing by states can lead to what?<n>A.An increase in non-traditional security threats.<n>B.A more cooperative international system.<n>C.A more competitive international system.<n>D.An increase in inter-state alliances and military restraint.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is essential to societal security?<n>A.Sovereignty.<n>B.Identity.<n>C.All of these options.<n>D.Hegemonic ethnicity.[SEP]B
+Which of the following best describes the existing legacy of structural adjustment policies?<n>A.Structural adjustment policies have been largely successful in achieving their aims of macroeconomic security in the developing world.<n>B.The neoliberal principles on which structural adjustment policies have been based have proven well suited to promoting human welfare in developing countries.<n>C.Neoliberal based adjustment policies have caused great and unnecessary hardship in developing countries and there is still no evidence they achieved their objectives for macroeconomic stability and growth.<n>D.There is significant evidence that structural adjustment policies have promoted economic growth and macroeconomic stability in the countries in which they were applied.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not an economic tool of security policy?<n>A.Sanctions<n>B.Diplomacy<n>C.Trade<n>D.Aid[SEP]B
+What is the value of a post-structuralist critique in security studies?<n>A.To enable us to understand the workings of political subjecthoods left out of traditional discourses on security.<n>B.To examine the base of power and its construction, in greater depth than traditional analysis.<n>C.To challenge the idea that smart weapons and technology are the active subjects determining security today.<n>D.All of these.[SEP]D
+Which of the following ways is NOT a defining feature that distinguishes postcolonialism from other perspectives on security?<n>A.Postcolonialism uniquely considers the nation or community group as a valid referent object in security studies.<n>B.Postcolonialism takes account not only of major war, but also of so-called 'small wars' and asymmetric conflicts.<n>C.Postcolonialism employs a distinctive focus on the role of violence in world politics.<n>D.Postcolonialism is not a predominantly or exclusively European form of knowledge.[SEP]A
+In what ways does the Ideal Policy framework provide an analytical framework for practitioners' success?<n>A.The Ideal Policy framework provides the analytical tools for understanding the contextual factors influencing the use of coercive diplomacy, for example why a policymaker takes the decision to, or not to, implement the Ideal Policy.<n>B.The Ideal Policy framework focuses on the use of coercive diplomacy to counter aggression. The Ideal Policy explains and predicts outcomes with a minimum of success conditions on the basis of the coercer's actions only.<n>C.The Ideal Policy provides an expansive framework, firstly for the examination of a maximum number of probable causal conditions and secondly to make the conditions applicable to the contextual factors relating to the use of coercive diplomacy.<n>D.The Ideal Policy framework recognizes that to make non-compliance too costly, the coercer must threaten to defeat the adversary or to deny the targets objectives. The condition for success is pivotal on the coercer's threat of force.[SEP]B
+What challenges to liberalism were shown by the Western response to the Arab Spring?<n>A.The problematic contention that the liberalist perspective is based on ideas that are Western - such as democracy, free enterprise, and civil rights.<n>B.Liberalism did not provide a clear way to deal with the Arab Spring, and its inconsistencies and contradictions were exposed.<n>C.The liberalist perspective does not explain clearly how and when liberalism is supposed to spread, in this case to the Arab countries in question.<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What is realism?<n>A.Realism is a set of approaches to Security Studies that focuses on states, and tries to determine which strategy a state should adopt to achieve security and other goals.<n>B.Realism is the broad term that can be applied to any traditional approach to Security Studies.<n>C.Realism is a set of approaches that encompasses any security threat that involves the military.<n>D.Realism is defined by the belief that the behaviour of states constructs the international arena and that this behaviour is established through the internal environment of the state.[SEP]A
+Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 forms of violence identified by postcolonialism?<n>A.Material violence.<n>B.Epistemic violence.<n>C.Structural violence.<n>D.Pervasive violence.[SEP]D
+Which of the following represent a move away from traditional interpretations of security studies?<n>A.Critical questioning.<n>B.Realist logic.<n>C.State-centric security analysis.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]A
+What are the causes of terrorism?<n>A.Democratization and nationalism inhibits the opportunity for terrorism: nationalism provides the ideological dynamic to unify ethnic differences, and democracy allows for the articulation of grievances in a constructive manner. Within this analysis states with weak democratic and nationalist credentials may provide the conditions that contribute to the development of terrorism.<n>B.Terrorism amongst Islamic groups is developed on ethnocentric lines opposed to the secularism that accompanies modernity. It is perhaps ironic that whilst terrorism was organized around the threat to Islamic society in the Middle East, the response to threat has resulted in groups in Europe feeling threatened by Muslim intrusion on Western values.<n>C.Capitalist market activities and technological and communication revolutions have increasingly intruded on traditional cultures and societies. Development inequalities and increasing marginalization of some ethnic or economic groups in the populations, alongside an increasing awareness of their dispossession provides grounds for breeding terrorism.<n>D.Non-democratic state structures characterized by a strong centralized system and repressive methods open a space for popular discontent to transform into operational terrorist activities with the intent of ending the political system. Whilst the opportunities for popular participation in liberal democracies prevent popular discontent from being articulated in a negative form.[SEP]C
+What techniques and targets belong to a workable definition of terrorism and terrorist concerns?<n>A.Suicide attacks have been employed by terrorists having the advantage of enabling detonation at the last minute or when casualties will be maximized. A potential future danger is that a suicide attack could be combined with the use of chemical, biological or radiological weapons.<n>B.The ability to find vulnerable targets may be greater in democratic states since there are limitations on how much a government can monitor its citizen and will, in the event of an attack, generate more publicity. However, security forces in weak non-democratic countries also provide conditions conducive to terrorist activity, enabling relative freedom of operation and movement.<n>C.WMD have not been used very often, requiring high levels of resources and trained personnel for use. Furthermore, most terrorist groups still prefer to use more predictable methods for inflicting maximum casualties on the target. Yet to some extent, terrorist groups have gained a psychological edge because of the fear of use of WMD.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What has been the importance of the new critical schools of security studies for the development of security studies? Have they simply become IR and lost their position that defines them as security studies?<n>A.The next generation is likely to develop their arguments in engagements with policy questions and in direct interaction with policymakers and think tanks.<n>B.Policy knowledge reflected in terms of theories, when an interaction emerges between the US and European thinkers, the theoretical context will be the same.<n>C.The set up continues to be one in which security studies is located between the IR discipline and technical experts and practitioners.<n>D.European security studies will be treated as a form of (policy) knowledge, whereas security theory in the US will treat this as the main empirical source for critical analysis.[SEP]C
+In what ways do environmental issues present a concern for peace researchers in the twenty-first century?<n>A.Environmental constraints can limit conventional economic growth, posing a direct threat to economic security and development.<n>B.Environmental changes, such as rising sea levels, can threaten the land on which populations are settled as well as their access to resources. Migration as a result of these changes presents threats to societal, economic and other sectors of security.<n>C.Environmental degradation and increased demand for resources is likely to lead to scarcity and result in conflict.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+There is a need to establish the nature and consequences of insecurity in the developing world. Why is this?<n>A.Empirically there is a need to understand why virtually all war and major political violence since 1945 continues to take place in the developing world and why the majority originates from internal rather than external sources. Between 20 - 30 million have lost their lives in more than one hundred intra-state wars and there are 20 - 40 wars ongoing in any given year.<n>B.Conceptually there is a need to find appropriate theories and concepts that accommodate the unique character of the security situation in the developing world; intra-state war, communal violence, poverty, famine, weapons proliferation, crime, political instability, socio-economic breakdown and state collapse.<n>C.From a normative perspective there are clear humanitarian imperatives to resolve the lack of security; 90 per cent of victims of intra-state violence are civilians, half a million are killed by light weapons, 40,000 a year die from hunger and poverty whilst tens of millions die from disease, chronic poverty, and inadequate health, education, employment, and environmental causes.<n>D.All of these options. There is a profound disjuncture between security in developed nations and the kind of security in the world's "zones of instability". From a global perspective insecurity is more of a norm than security is. However, globalization essentially means that these forms of insecurity cannot be contained within increasingly porous national borders.[SEP]D
+When considering the international system from a realist perspective, which of the following statements concerning the advent of war is true?<n>A.War is more likely to occur when a state is losing power, a decline in a state's ability to protect itself from attack, coercion and vulnerability increases its motivation to engage in aggressive behaviour.<n>B.War may be more likely to occur in multipolar international systems where, among other reasons, states have the incentive and opportunity to buckpass.<n>C.War is more likely when the offence-defence balance of the international system favours offence, thus creating a more competitive environment for states.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Describe the relationship between the military security domain and social constructivism.<n>A.It is possible to study military security through non-realist analytical lenses, and to adopt a social constructivist approach that regards cultural and social factors as being important focuses of study. This has led to claims that broader approaches to military endeavours should be adopted, including the proposed employment of social and development specialists in conflict situations.<n>B.Social constructivists reject the foundations of realism upon which military security studies are based; in rejecting the empirical basis of security studies, the social constructivist approach becomes inadequate in its attempts to formulate military security theory.<n>C.Social constructivism is based on philosophical ideas that directly contradict the foundations of military-centred theory. The tendency is for social constructivists to dismiss military endeavours as clumsy and as being detrimental to human security.<n>D.In order to study military security, analysts must adopt a realist lens. However, this can later be combined with other approaches, including social constructivism, in order to consider the security of different referent objects such as the environment or human security.[SEP]A
+How do gun shows and international arms fairs contribute to illicit arms markets?<n>A.Although the subject of vocal opposition by campaigners, gun shows employ strict legal restrictions on participants, ensuring that those with criminal records are not able to purchase weapons.<n>B.Gun shows are regulated to ensure that weapons purchased legally cannot be resold on the black or grey markets.<n>C.Gun shows and arms fairs do not contribute in a significant way to the trade in illicit arms.<n>D.Gun shows and arms fairs often do not require participants to undergo security checks before purchasing weapons, and encourage an environment where more attention is paid to price tags than details about where weapons will be distributed or used.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements is the odd one out?<n>A.Societal groups have a right to survive.<n>B.Societal groups have their own reality.<n>C.Societal groups are constituted by social interaction.<n>D.Societal groups are multiple-identity units.[SEP]C
+Which of the following was not stated as an objective of the Commission on Human Security when it was launched?<n>A.To promote public understanding, engagement and support of human security and its underlying imperatives.<n>B.To develop the concept of human security as an operational tool for policy formulation and implementation.<n>C.To propose a concrete program of action to address critical and pervasive threats to human security.<n>D.To develop a new international justice system to enhance human security.[SEP]D
+In terms of cyber-security, what is meant by 'resilience' and why is it important?<n>A.Resilience refers to the ability of an IT system to identify and defend against a cyber-security threat.<n>B.The only way to build a truly resilient IT system is to ensure that it can repel all types of threat and remain and avoid attack.<n>C.Resilience in an IT system refers to its ability to function when there are no threats to its security.<n>D.Resilience refers to the ability of IT systems to recover from attack.[SEP]D
+Has TNC become a national security threat?<n>A.Transnational crime is regarded as a threat to economic development. Organized crime is seen as a threat to development insofar as it undermines the rule of law and deters foreign investment by increasing the level of insecurity in the host communities. Additionally, criminals often reinvest their proceeds in the legal economy and have unfair advantage through access to cheap capital and their ability to intimidate commercial adversaries. In societies with high levels of TNC, legitimate investors are often reluctant to commit resources.<n>B.TNC undermines democratic stability. In many states, transnational criminal enterprises have taken advantage of the instability that has accompanied the democratic transitions to post communist societies, using their influence in the upper reaches of the state and thus shielding themselves from law enforcement. The corruption of public institutions and the perceived inefficacy of the rule of law in new democracies contribute to undermining public confidence in and loyalty to the new regime.<n>C.The ability of transnational crime to evade state border controls and provide new avenues for the illicit transportation of goods and persons challenges the state's ability to exercise its core functions as guarantor of national sovereignty, the monopolization over the control of force, and as the provider of the common good. TNC criminal activities corrupt and undermine numerous state agencies, providing mechanisms by which their activities can affect the very nature of government and state policy in the host countries.<n>D.All of the above are correct.[SEP]D
+In what ways is a fusion nuclear device different from a fission device?<n>A.A fusion weapon is a three-stage-bomb that uses an implosion device to create a fission reaction, which then detonates a fusion reaction. It is often referred to as a thermo-nuclear or hydrogen device and has unlimited destructive potential.<n>B.A fusion reaction is created when the nuclei of two light elements are combined, the reaction resulting in heavier elements fragmenting into smaller parts. This fragmentation releases energy of limited destructive capacity, the extent of energy released dependent on the mass of material used.<n>C.A fusion device is a two-stage process where a gun-type device is used to trigger a series of fission reactions with the cumulative result being the production of a high energy flash explosion with unlimited thermal energy.<n>D.Fusion weapons have a highly specific destructive effect. The heavier element produced from a fissions reaction, and the difference in mass from the two lighter nuclei (which is translated into an energy explosion) can be precision calculated. Bombs even within the multi-megaton range have unlimited military utility, their destructive capability can be manufactured according to the target.[SEP]A
+In defining the term 'historical materialism', which of the following statements best defines the term 'materialism'?<n>A.Materialism refers to HM's focus on class and the productive basis of societies, as well as the ways in which social structures have the capacity to change and produce change.<n>B.Materialism refers to the roots of HM in the postmodern schools of thought.<n>C.The term materialism refers to the focus of HM on consumerism and the centrality of economic power in the approach.<n>D.In their rejection of class orientated political interaction, HM scholars refer to wealth instead as the accumulation or access to physical resources, coining the term materialism to describe this approach.[SEP]A
+Which of the following events can be regarded as contributing to the emergence of environmental security during the 1960s and 1970s?<n>A.From the 1970s a number of scholars attempted to critique orthodox security discourse and practices, highlighting their inability to manage environmental risks to national and international security.<n>B.There became a growing recognition that environmental changes do not merely pose risks to ecosystems - they also pose risks to human well-being.<n>C.A shared environmental consciousness emerged in developing countries.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Is TNC a new phenomenon?<n>A.There is little evidence to substantiate the claim that there is a real and increasing threat posed by the scale and scope of transnational crime in the 1980s to 1990s beyond the consensus that concern over the levels of crime were generated by the military re-conceiving its role in light of the dissolution of the Cold War.<n>B.Whereas illegal markets were territorially bounded and isolated in the past, the contemporary form illicit markets tend to be interrelated and mutually supporting and more embedded in the legal economy.<n>C.TNC is a response by the dispossessed in response to the asymmetric economic development of nation states and the inequity of global market capitalism married with environmental constraints on development.<n>D.Transnational crime is no longer the exclusive domain of certain geographic areas or ethnic groups becoming globalized in operation, increasing the number of groups and countries affected and increasing the size of the illegal market ratio to licit trade.[SEP]B
+Which of the following is not a response to the illicit arms trade?<n>A.2001 UN Protocol Against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, Their Parts and Components and Ammunition.<n>B.2001 UN Programme of Action to Prevent, Combat and Eradicate the Illicit Trade in Small Arms and Light Weapons in All its Aspects.<n>C.2001 UN Security Council Resolution 1308 on HIV/AIDS as a National Security Threat.<n>D.2005 Marking and Tracing of Weapons Accord.[SEP]C
+Prior to the late 20th century the role of women in war had been neglected as an area of concern in security studies, for what reason?<n>A.Women did not actively engage in warfare as combatants and so questions of gender or the role of women were not important in considerations of security.<n>B.The roles that women played in violence, be it as victims, perpetrators or otherwise, was framed in terms of what effect their roles had on the state, rather than as individuals or as women.<n>C.The role of women was given appropriate consideration; women have fulfilled many vital roles in the support of the dominant security system.<n>D.Women are generally unsupportive of warfare and prefer to engage in anti-war or opposition movements, rendering their contribution to the study of warfare as marginal.[SEP]B
+What are the main criticisms of the realist argument against humanitarian intervention?<n>A.Realist opposition to humanitarian intervention is based on assumptions that states will protect their citizens.<n>B.The realist position overlooks the responsibilities that are inherent to sovereignty.<n>C.Critics of humanitarian intervention overlook the wide body of international law relating to basic human rights and the consensus on grave crimes such as genocide.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements best describes our understanding of the term 'globalization'?<n>A.Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism.<n>B.Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of space and time through the development of new technologies.<n>C.Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community, drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic and technical levels. This process began in the early 20th century and was based on the ideological expeditions that originated from western Europe.<n>D.Globalization has occurred since the 1980s, originating in Western Europe as a centre of political power and technological advancement. The process is a direct result of technological advancement in communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe.[SEP]B
+In what ways may weak states be challenged externally?<n>A.Powerful states may employ diplomatic pressures to ensure that weak states comply with international norms. This may involve economic sanctions and withholding weaponry deals, which undermines the state's ability to pay or supply the army which increases the risk of army disaffection and possible coups.<n>B.Weak states are threatened by the proliferation of small arms which can be used in a challenge to the authority of the state. Small and light weapons are purchasable through legal and illegal channels and are prevalent in regions with warlords, criminals and private militias.<n>C.Weak states cannot remain isolated from processes of globalization. Increasingly porous borders lead to migration and immigration. In order to compete in a globalized market weak states look to secure financial-credit assistance or aid from international institutions. However, these processes undermine the hegemonic idea of the state and societal identity is blurred which makes it difficult for the state to sustain its ideological appeal.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is applicable when considering the concept of security dilemmas in terms of societal identity?<n>A.For societal security dilemmas ambiguity can stem from two sides of nationalism; cultural (positive) and ethnic (negative). Ethnic (political) nationalism is often described as more malign and linked to state disintegration, whereas cultural nationalism is often seen as benign, working within existing state structures.<n>B.Clear distinctions between cultural nationalism and political nationalism are difficult to make: cultural nationalism may sometimes be compelled to change itself from a solely cultural movement into a political movement and be conflated with political nationalism.<n>C.Dominant actors may exaggerate threat perceptions with the intent of mobilizing political support which can result in action reaction processes.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What is meant by the term 'security dilemma' and how does it impact on the international security environment?<n>A.The security dilemma can be utilised as a force for stabilising the international environment, placing all states at equal risk of military attack and discouraging a counter-productive accumulation of military force; the impact of security dilemmas is largely restricted to the realm of military security, although this can have far-reaching effects.<n>B.The security dilemma arises out of the anarchic international system that is conceptualized by realists. Within this environment, states are obliged to seek security through their own military efforts; this is perceived as threatening to other states and so triggers an arms race spiral. The security dilemma has implications for security sectors other than the military, particularly the political and societal security sectors.<n>C.The term security dilemma refers to the state of constant insecurity that is inherent to the traditional realist paradigm of international security. Security dilemmas will have most notable effects on human and societal security, typically outweighing the initial implications on traditional security domains such as the political and military sphere.<n>D.Security dilemmas have implications for other realms of security beside the military domain, although their effect on societal security is limited. The term primarily refers to the ways in which states conceptualize their own military capabilities with regards to those around them.[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements does NOT characterize arms control as a strategic policy?<n>A.Arms control is an example of cooperative security, designed to address the problems associated with the security dilemma.<n>B.Policies of arms control and disarmament was pursued during the Cold War in an attempt to achieve security.<n>C.Arms control does not challenge the central role of weaponry and military power in the international system, instead focusing on the problems produced by specific weapon systems and relationships.<n>D.After its successful application during the Cold War, arms control has retained its momentum and applicability in the contemporary security environment.[SEP]D
+What are the types of terrorism? Are all groups the same?<n>A.Religious terrorism seems to be one of the hallmarks of the post-Cold War age. Religious terrorism is understood to denote the extremist activities of Islamic fundamentalism. Al-Qaeda is the most prominent example of religious terrorist groups and is described as globally operational, although religious terrorism is not limited to the al-Qaeda network. Christian beliefs were used to justify the ethnic cleansing in Bosnia, as well as anti-abortionist assassinations in the USA.<n>B.Terrorist groups have drawn their ideas from ideologies. There was a wave of terrorist violence in Europe in the 1970s and 1980s rooted in various leftist and Marxist ideologies but these began to wane by the late 1980s. Right-wing groups are also present, often with overtly xenophobic and racist views, targeting migrants and foreign workers.<n>C.Groups defined by their ethnic or linguistic identifications are a broad category for the organization of terrorist groups. In some countries a large number of anti-colonial groups were ethnically based and used terrorist tactics in the wars of liberation. Such loyalties and tactics have in some cases proved immutable post-independence. Ethnic and linguistic affiliation has proved a powerful motivation for terrorist actions when combined with territory, and ethnic independence from another ethnic group.<n>D.All of the above are correct.[SEP]D
+What kind of actors are involved in the defence trade?<n>A.The defence trade concerns legitimate business interaction between states procuring or selling military equipment.<n>B.Military organisations are the sole actors in the defence trade.<n>C.Not only state actors are involved in the defence trade. Non-state actors, including illegal groups, are also key players.<n>D.The defence trade refers solely to the trade in weapons and small arms that takes place outside the legal interactions between states.[SEP]C
+How has HM developed during and since the Cold War?<n>A.During the post Cold War period there has grown an increasingly disparity between the analytical framework of security studies and HM, sidelining the latter and excluding it from mainstream study.<n>B.Following the popularity of HM during the Cold War it has enjoyed a gradual inclusion into security dialogue and is now considered one of the main paradigms within security studies.<n>C.The negativity attached to HM during the Cold War restricted the prominence of HM at this time, excluding it from mainstream security studies. Following this, the broadening of the security studies agenda has lead to increasing inclusion of HM as an area for study.<n>D.HM was developed as an approach to security studies following the Cold War and has flourished in the proceeding security environment. It has also enjoyed reputable success thanks to its affiliation with prominent actors during the Cold War.[SEP]C
+To what extent is TNC linked with terrorism, and in what ways?<n>A.There is growing evidence of direct partnerships between terrorist groups and transnational criminal organization resulting from the end of the Cold War and the need to secure new forms of financial sponsorship. For most terrorist groups criminal activity has been amongst the most important sources of funds with the diffusion of terrorist networks globally operating in correlation to the diffusion of illicit market activities.<n>B.The nexus between terrorist groups and criminal organizations are generally a temporary aberration. Differential long-term strategic goals meant that levels of cooperation were generally tactical temporary alliances that would have little pervasive effects.<n>C.There is increasing evidence over the convergence of terrorism and transnational crime, but there is no consensus about whether this phenomenon is a long-term strategic alliance or episodic "marriages of convenience".<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]C
+Which statement best describes the relationship between realist international relations theorists and peace researchers in the early 1960s?<n>A.Both peace researchers and realists advocated an academic focus on the escalation of the arms race. Although tensions existed between the groups in terms of their proposed solutions to this crisis, there existed a consensus that the Soviet bloc should be eliminated as a nuclear threat, thus favouring the survival of Western liberal democracies.<n>B.In contrast to the realist school, peace researchers looked beyond the accumulation of nuclear weapons for a focus to their studies; this resulted in tensions between the two groups, with the former believing that the attainment of superior military strength was paramount to achieving security.<n>C.Whilst peace researchers indentified the escalation of the arms race as a result of failures by the League of Nations, realist scholars deemed it to be the natural progression of ideological differences between the Soviet bloc and Western liberal democracies. This resulted in irreconcilable differences between the study agendas of realists and peace researchers.<n>D.The East-West divide of the Cold War gave rise to a sharp divide between realists and early peace studies theorists. Whilst realists wished to focus research on that which would favour the survival of Western liberal democracies, advocates of peace studies regarded this approach as being narrow and Western ethnocentric.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is an important outcome of the 'energy security nexus'?<n>A.Attempts to exert control over energy reserves in the South have consequences for the sustainability of cooperation between core powers; the emergence of geopolitical rivalries over this form of control has implications for international security.<n>B.All of these options.<n>C.United by common insecurities concerning the production and supply of energy resources, international actors are forced into negotiation and cooperation between states increases.<n>D.By virtue of their energy resources to which the global 'North' desires access, states in the 'South' gain power in the international arena and have redressed the global North-South divide and associated inequalities.[SEP]A
+In what ways did strategic circumstances have an effect on environmental security perspectives?<n>A.The end of the Cold War created the space for security policy and security studies to be re-considered in light of growing environmental consciousness underlined by multilateralism in policy action.<n>B.In 1973 the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) restricted oil supplies which underlined the industrial capacity of the military leaving a profound psychological impact requiring that security be linked to national interests: the securing of energy deals and the environment became related to military capability diplomacy.<n>C.Ideologically driven military security was replaced by a need to preserve territorial integrity in wake of the collapse of communism. Military security was a high priority given the threat of spill-over. The environment remained a peripheral concern to the security institutions occupied with the new security environment post-Cold War.<n>D.The end of the Cold War order created the intellectual space for the broadening of security issues beyond Cold War military mentalities. Research among political and environmental scientists discussed ways in which new security issues could be addressed. The plethora of publications produced, however, had little effect on policy.[SEP]A
+The following statements define the conceptualization of 'class' within HM; which is incorrect?<n>A.All advocates of HM accept that social class is important.<n>B.Within the HM paradigm, the only form of class that matters is social class.<n>C.The focus of HM lies predominantly on class and class in relation to capital.<n>D.HM regards class as being far more complex than a simple division between a capitalist ruling class and working class.[SEP]B
+Which of the following security sectors are intrinsically linked with energy security?<n>A.Economic and development security.<n>B.Regime and international security.<n>C.Environmental and human security.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What is the relationship between HM and realism?<n>A.Both HM and realism are based on the notion that there exist within society certain discernable realities.<n>B.HM has some aspects in common with realism, liberalism, and social constructivism, but it offers something distinctive in having class conflict within capitalism as its central focus.<n>C.Whilst HM recognises the importance of the state as an actor within the international system, it also purports that states prioritize the interests of the ruling-class elite.<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What factors enabled the expansion of transnational crime (TNC) in the 1990s?<n>A.Transnational crime developed as a result of the declining expenditure on defence and the standing down of armies, which reduced the risk of activities.<n>B.TNC as a concept emerged in the academic sphere as linked to human security concerns and developmental opportunities in weak states as a means of conflict resolution and peace building in Europe.<n>C.Transnational criminal activities have always been a feature of the international system. In the policy community, the growth of interest in TNC is due to the increasing sophistication of intelligence and communications technology, which has enabled the true representation of the scale and the scope of the problem to be known.<n>D.International trends such as globalization may have had the unintentional consequence of opening up new spaces for the development of transnational crime.[SEP]D
+Why do so many feminist scholars regard the exclusion of women from the military sphere or from armed combat as important?<n>A.Veterans of armed conflict may be rewarded by gaining powerful offices, often in political positions and in state institutions.<n>B.Participation in military activity is often regarded as a sign of strength, patriotism and courage.<n>C.The foundations for decisions not to allow female participation are commonly based on arbitrary and discriminatory rationale that can limit women's participation in civil society in other ways.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+In the context of energy security and the production of oil, which of the following does not define the term 'stability'?<n>A.The absence of challenges to the regime of oil-producing states.<n>B.A political and economic situation in which the status quo of production, exportation and supply is maintained.<n>C.The promotion of human security and the affiliated environmental security as a priority within oil-producing states.<n>D.The security of regimes deemed 'friendly' by North American, European, and international oil company interests.[SEP]C
+In what ways is the case for humanitarian intervention, as outlined in this chapter, limited?<n>A.It is not self-evident that individuals do have universal and fundamental human rights.<n>B.Advocates of humanitarian intervention exaggerate the extent of global consensus about the use of force to protect human rights.<n>C.Any norm endorsing the use of force to protect individual rights could be abused by powerful states.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements is not applicable to the Securitization process?<n>A.Securitization reveals the power of the securitizing actor.<n>B.Where the securitizing actor is a democratic state, the relevant audience is usually the wider population who have the right to reject the speech act.<n>C.The adoption of extraordinary measures can retrospectively convince an audience of the existential threat.<n>D.Within authoritarian and other undemocratic regimes, the relevant political decision-making is often dominated by the military and political elite.[SEP]C
+During the 20th century, how has the focus of security studies changed regarding military security?<n>A.Security studies has always favoured a wide range of subjects when considering the field of security. Different types of security, most notably of human security and economic security, have enjoyed a great deal of attention in traditional security studies, alongside military security. After the Cold War this approach was broadened to include other types of security such as environmental and personal security.<n>B.Military security has emerged since the Cold War as the dominant sector within security analysis; both scholars and practitioners recognise the paramount importance of pursuing military security, based on the idea that military capabilities pose the greatest threat to human and state survival.<n>C.Prior to the Cold War the focus of security studies lay in the military sector, although environmental security was rapidly emerging as a serious threat to security, forcing analysts to reconsider the state-centric frameworks they had previously employed.<n>D.During the Cold War most security analysts agreed that military security should be the focus of security studies; as a result, there was not much discussion about what security entailed, other than the military sector. Following this period security studies have been broadened to include the wider range of sectors that we see today, including environmental and political security.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not a purported limitation of the liberalist approach?<n>A.Liberalism poses great difficulty in defining when the use of force would be justified or necessary.<n>B.Liberalism is often internally inconsistent, limiting its applicability for use as a guide.<n>C.A failure to address the importance of a wide range of actors in the decision-making processes of the international system.<n>D.Liberalist influence merely reflects Western dominance, potentially undermining its relevance in the future.[SEP]C
+Which of these statements is not applicable to the development of peace studies in the twentieth century?<n>A.Within peace studies, one of the later developments was a major interest in conflict prevention, conflict resolution, and peacekeeping.<n>B.At the height of the Cold War, peace studies was frequently labelled 'appeasement studies' and was bitterly opposed by critics.<n>C.By the 1970s, prominent peace researchers were calling for a broadening in the remit of the field but were largely unsuccessful in their attempts.<n>D.Peace studies sought to provide a more global and non-state centric view of major issues of conflict.[SEP]C
+In the contemporary context, how can peace studies best be defined?<n>A.Following the expansion of peace studies in the decline of the Cold War, the field has emerged as an independent and autonomous area of study that addresses issues surrounding conflict resolution, economic security and the cessation of violence at both an international and sub-national level. As a field of research, peace studies are best defined by their distinction from development studies and international relations.<n>B.Peace studies are best defined by its research agenda that focuses on the search for non-violent measures by which to end conflict. Peace researchers adopt a 'top-down' approach to conflict resolution that prioritises the issues surrounding violence and the use of force, focusing on instigating agents in an attempt to secure that actor as the referent object to security.<n>C.Peace studies cannot be defined as a specific academic approach due to the shifting nature of its research agenda and the diversity of interests addressed by peace researchers. However, following the Cold War the success of the field has been such that it boasts a number of research institutes and attracts global and interdisciplinary attention.<n>D.Peace studies is defined by a concern with the underlying causes of phenomena in IR, a global outlook, an interdisciplinary approach, the search for non-violent transformations, an analytical and normative approach, and the adoption of multi-level analysis that links theory and practice within research.[SEP]D
+What role does 'Information' play in the economic science of decision making?<n>A.Information is not important to decision making in economic theory; rather, it is an actor's perceptions of situations that will inform their decision making process.<n>B.Information has no special significance to economic decision making, which is guided more by external forces that coerce actors than their own rational choices.<n>C.Information plays a significant role in decision making because, although theory asserts that actors act in their own best interest, 'rational action' depends on the information available to them at the time.<n>D.Information has become an important resource in the 21st century and can be sold and traded as a market commodity.[SEP]C
+Which of the following are frequently cited criticisms of HM?<n>A.HM pays insufficient attention to the role of the labourer, instead focusing on the capitalist as the source of power and most important actor. HM can also allude to capitalist power structures, to the detriment of supporting the human security of workers.<n>B.HM too often accuses capitalism of acting solely in self-serving ways, and explains everything in terms of class struggle, to the detriment of wider analysis. Some versions of HM claim to have uncovered objective laws of history which are widely disputed in their accuracy.<n>C.HM is inevitably reductionist and oversimplifies the complexities of capitalism, recognising only its negative aspects and harmful effects.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]B
+What is the referent object in contemporary cyber-security?<n>A.Digitalised sensitive information<n>B.Critical Information Infrastructures<n>C.Government IT systems<n>D.Telecommunication networks[SEP]B
+Which of the following phrases is not likely to indicate legitimacy in the new terminology of RMA?<n>A.Surgical strike.<n>B.Indiscriminate attack.<n>C.Smart bomb.<n>D.Precision target.[SEP]B
+Which of the following did not emerge as a trend of the defence trade in the 20th century?<n>A.The arms trade shifts from being a private to a government controlled enterprise.<n>B.An increase in the defence trade.<n>C.A decrease in the arms trade.<n>D.A growth in the number and variety of weapons traded.[SEP]C
+Which of these statements concerning the study of identity is not applicable to social constructivism?<n>A.Identity defines actors, and tells us who they are, what their preferences and interests are, and how those preferences might inform their actions.<n>B.Identity is of fundamental importance to the social constructivist perspective because it is the basest principle in defining behaviour; it is a naturally bestowed quality comprised of certain unalterable behavioural characteristics.<n>C.The identities, interests and behaviour of political agents are socially constructed by shared ideas, collective meaning, and interpretations and assumptions about the world.<n>D.Actors form their identity through interaction, which in turn defines the types of relationship formed between these actors.[SEP]B
+Which of these are characteristics of realist theory?<n>A.The international system is anarchic.<n>B.States assess one another in terms of their power and capabilities rather than their internal variations.<n>C.States are unitary and rational actors; sovereign states will act in a way suited to achieving their goals.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of these statements defines the Copenhagen School's view of security?<n>A.Security is a socially constructed concept, relative to the society in which it exists, and what will constitute an existential threat is accordingly subjective.<n>B.Security is best defined using the traditional paradigm, with the state as the referent object to be secured using extraordinary measures where possible.<n>C.To best understand security one must adopt a constructivist approach, threats exist only when articulated by a wider audience and may warrant the implementation of emergency measures.<n>D.Security exists as an empirically verifiable and independent condition that changes only slightly, if at all, with regards to the social context in which it is applied.[SEP]A
+Which of these best describes the concept of hegemonic masculinity?<n>A.The inherent promotion of feminine characteristics in society.<n>B.Social dominance of men over women that results from the designation of 'masculine' characteristics as more valued than 'feminine' characteristics.<n>C.All of these options.<n>D.The acknowledgement that gender identity exists in many forms and is not binary.[SEP]B
+How do institutional constraints affect behaviour?<n>A.Institutional constraints limit the amount of resources to be spent on some good and force actors to choose how to manage the limited wealth available to them.<n>B.Institutions are the social norms and expectations that affect an actor's goals and ambitions.<n>C.Institutional constraints refer to tools of the state such as schools, prisons, and hospitals; the provision of resources for these institutions makes demands on political leaders.<n>D.Institutions are humanly devised constrains that structure human interaction, they are man-made rules that guide decision making and govern behaviour.[SEP]D
+Which of the following policies is not true of economic policy?<n>A.Economic policies must take into account the incentives of not only the leaders, but the populations intended to influence.<n>B.Policymakers can incentivize security-promoting behaviours in others through the use of sanctions and aid.<n>C.Trade policies can entice leaders to change behaviours in exchange for access to markets or trade preferences, and advance security.<n>D.Concern with poverty is a humanitarian issue that has no direct link to economic science, although it might be alleviated through aid.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not an assertion made in the realist case against humanitarian inventions?<n>A.Armed force should only ever be used in the national interest and that humanitarian intervention is therefore imprudent.<n>B.Foreign intervention reduces the proportion of wars that end in outright victory, it leaves behind an unstable peace that is likely to reignite.<n>C.Foreign intervention tends to prolong wars; it is inappropriate and does not work.<n>D.Humanitarian intervention prioritises the human as the referent object of security, undermining the state-centric approach of realism.[SEP]D
+Why, in the contemporary studies of security, is the subject of energy security so important?<n>A.There exists an array of contemporary challenges to energy security, ranging from resource scarcity concerns to dangers of political instability.<n>B.The existence of reliable supplies of energy determines the ability of a nation to achieve economic development.<n>C.Energy security encompasses a broad range of issues that are both contemporary and fundamental to security, ranging from the local and individual to the global scale.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is a legitimate threat to societal security?<n>A.Political policies designed to alter demographic characteristics of a state.<n>B.All of these options.<n>C.Legislation that criminalises certain cultural behaviours or practice.<n>D.The use of military force to conduct ethnic-cleansing through displacement and killing.[SEP]B
+Which of the following statements best describes the orientation of military security within the traditional conception of security studies?<n>A.Strategic studies are the central concern of international relations, within strategic studies, the subset of security studies focuses on military security.<n>B.Military security is a central concern within international relations and dominates the scholarship. Within international relations, strategic studies form a subset of academic interest, within which security studies feature occasionally.<n>C.Strategic studies are best conceptualized as a subset of international relations, and within strategic studies, military security is one of the dominant concerns. Security studies are a subset of strategic studies.<n>D.Military security is the central concern of strategic studies; and strategic studies are a subset of security studies. Military security is one of the central concerns of security studies, and security studies is a subset of international relations.[SEP]D
+Which of these statements cannot be applied to the initial development of peace studies?<n>A.Mathematicians and natural scientists entered the field, which was otherwise a social-sciences area of study, adding to the interdisciplinary nature of the field.<n>B.Now of fundamental importance to peace studies as a field of research, the creation of journals was not a prominent feature of the peace studies until late in the twentieth century.<n>C.Most early work was carried out in North America and Scandinavia.<n>D.The establishment of research institutes across the world has been one of the lasting successes of peace studies.[SEP]B
+Since the end of the Cold War, how has the use of coercive diplomacy by Western powers changed?<n>A.Coercive diplomacy has proven a successful policy tool and one that is integral to conflict management. The successes of the past policy initiatives in the post-9/11 community have reinforced the trend toward coercive diplomacy by increasing American political will to counter mass casualty terrorism in failing states.<n>B.The favourable geo-political environment, characterized by an overwhelmingly Western military superiority and a low risk of hostile great power intervention, has generated pressures and incentives for Western policymakers to promote their policy agenda, and to manage armed conflicts from weak states and failing states.<n>C.The demise of the ideological bipolar division of international society in the Cold War, rather than resulting in a reduction of hostilities, has left an unstable legacy where a policy of force and mass retaliation continues to pose a very real threat. Risk of uncontrollable escalation still remains but in a different form; mass casualty terrorism, contagion from failing states and non-state actors seeking to acquire WMD are the primary concern of states and require responses in the form of military intervention.<n>D.The hostile geopolitical environment has encouraged states to pursue military strategies in order to secure their interests. The use of violence rather than diplomacy or incentives has become the primary response to threats, whether these are posed by other states, resource scarcity, pandemic diseases, or other non-traditional threats.[SEP]B
+To what extent and to what effect has the environment been securitized?<n>A.The securitization of environmental security concerns has raised the profile of environmental security issues among both foreign and domestic security policymakers and agencies. It is now uniformly recognized that environmental change can be considered as an issue of high security politics.<n>B.Environmental security has led to a 'trading off' of military security for environmental security with the allocation of resources committed to solving environmental problems. A particular emphasis has been placed on environmental change as the cause of violent conflict and addressing environmental threats from other factors than domestic causes.<n>C.The environment has been 'securitized' in the sense that environmental security has been used to make them matters of 'high politics'. This has to some degree raised the profile of critical issues among policymakers and agencies so that the environment can be considered an issue of security. But whilst the issue has been broadened there has been little change in policy and action in terms of the referent object of environmental security.<n>D.The national security perspective on environmental issues has undermined the utility of the concept of environmental security. The militarization of environmental problems has decreased the ability of policymakers to 'capture' the critical nature of environmental problems and the environmental dimensions to social vulnerability. The reconciliation of environmental security with national security, and global levels of international change cannot be made without trading in the security interests of the state.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not a common criticism of Securitization?<n>A.A loose and broad conceptualization of security can lead to vagueness and a lack of conceptual and analytical coherence.<n>B.When the securitizing actor is not the state, it can be unclear what would constitute an extraordinary measure.<n>C.The model relies on a definition of distinctive political and security realms, which are not always clearly defined.<n>D.The theory of securitization lacks coherence in terms of its employment as a tool for analytical studies in security.[SEP]D
+Which of these statements characterizes the traditional concept of national security, as opposed to human security?<n>A.All of these options.<n>B.In the national security approach, real threats are only those posed to human life, human rights, or human dignity.<n>C.The traditional interpretations of security and threats are important boundaries that define human security.<n>D.The concept of national security is too narrow to be useful when analysing the broad threats that currently exist.[SEP]D
+How does Buzan's concept of 'societal security' mark a departure from traditional understandings of security?<n>A.Securing the sustainable development of the state was dependent on societal security as an independent interest that was not secondary or dependent on the other sectors, including the military.<n>B.The end of the Cold War allowed security studies to move beyond the confines of the dominant realist and neorealist perspectives, with an emerging interest in other, non-military, conceptions of security. Those who wished to broaden the scope of security studies advocated the inclusion of resource, environment, and other referent points for analysis.<n>C.Societal security referred to the sustainable development of traditional patterns of military capabilities. Military threats could be subdivided to include the infrastructural strength, the technology, personnel, the economic base and the political base of the military security sector.<n>D.Contemporary processes of globalization and societal conflict required the development of new conceptual tools beyond the state as the referent object. Security was dependent on factors beyond geographically conceived survival: survival of the state was superseded by survival of the nation (ethnic) state.[SEP]B
+Which of the following conditions does not constitute 'human security'?<n>A.A condition where people are given relief from the traumas that afflict human development, are safe from threats and are protected from hurtful disruptions to their daily lives.<n>B.A condition in which every citizen is free from the threat of physical violence, regardless of their race, ethnicity or other identity.<n>C.A condition where people are guaranteed the ability to live and develop, free from political oppression or prejudice, safe from threats posed by their own or external state actors.<n>D.A condition where people exist independently of state support, where human life is self-sufficient in that individuals do not require the assistance of state apparatus in order to live securely.[SEP]D
+What are the effects of nuclear weapons?<n>A.A nuclear blast produces EMP, a thermal light pulse, blast, and fallout at the moment of detonation. The electro-magnetic pulse occurs when gamma radiation interacts with matter (the atmosphere), "the Compton effect." EMP produces a high voltage charge, harmless to humans but destructive to electronic systems. EMP effects are maximized at high altitude. However thermal-light pulse can produce flash blindness, retinal burn, and fire whilst the airburst can cause severe skin burns.<n>B.A nuclear detonation produces a shockwave resulting from a rise in atmospheric pressure and dynamic overpressure sufficient to destroy concrete structures. Blast effects were generally used by military planners to calculate casualty rates in a nuclear attack: It was estimated that 50 percent living in a five mile radius of a one-mgt airburst would be killed or wounded by blast effects.<n>C.Nuclear reactions in the initial nuclear detonation or the fallout can cause radiation poisoning, as irradiated debris is picked up by the nuclear fireball and lofted into the atmosphere. A dirty bomb uses chemical high-explosive to disperse radioactive material, relying on radiation to produce a lethal effect. Panic set off by even a limited dispersion of radioactive material might be more costly in terms of the disruption it causes than actual casualties or damage to property produced by a dirty bomb detonation; some observers believe that the blast itself causes the greatest amount of damage.<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Which statement best describes commercial liberalism?<n>A.Commercial liberalism is the newest and most important faction of liberalism; it advocates socialist economic principles in order to address inequalities in the distribution of wealth that threaten societal and regime security.<n>B.Commercial liberalism is based on the idea that free-trade directly undermines the power of the state, and argues that the market should be regulated where possible by state actors. One flaw of commercial liberalism is that it reduces cooperation and can thus increase conflict between states.<n>C.Commercial liberalism is probably the oldest faction of liberalism; advocating free trade as the free movement of goods and capital, it purports that the most rapid and efficient production of wealth occurs when governments do not restrict the economic activity of private actors and the free market.<n>D.Commercial liberalism advocates the restraint of private enterprise and non-governmental activity in the economic sphere, arguing that interference will hinder economic prosperity.[SEP]C
+Security studies can be interpreted as an imperial field of knowledge in which of the following ways?<n>A.Security studies emerged in relation to the interests of the USA and Britain following the Second World War.<n>B.Security studies adopts a perspective which postcolonial scholars refer to as 'the colonizer's view of the world'.<n>C.Security studies was originally defined by the power of the USA and Britain at a time when they actively supported colonial and imperial relations in the global south.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What do critics fear would be the result of granting rights of humanitarian intervention?<n>A.An abuse of this power in order to wage state-interested wars.<n>B.A depletion of military resources pursuing wars on ethical grounds, leading to a loss of military security.<n>C.Whilst some states have proven their ability to conduct 'just' wars in order to protect sound values of democracy and neoliberalism, not all states would use force to pursue such globally beneficial ends.<n>D.A lack of implementation of these rights by state actors, leading to a failure to address human rights abuses.[SEP]A
+In what ways did the Human Development Report, published by the United Nations Development Program in 1994, challenge the traditional security paradigm?<n>A.The report outlined seven areas or components of human security that policymakers should henceforth devote greater political attention and capital to: economic security, food security, health security, environmental security, personal security, community security, and political security.<n>B.The report highlighted the considerable burden that infectious diseases continue to pose in the developing world-including HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria.<n>C.The report advocates a framework of human security analysis that aims to redress the perceived imbalance in security thinking that has been predominant in traditional security studies.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+How might we understand the terms gender and gender security?<n>A.Gender security is essentially an extension of the way in which we conceptualize the international political system. The analysis of gender security relations has only been made possible by the expansion of the traditional military definition of security in which national security in anarchical international society was the exclusive province of the male.<n>B.To study gender security is to focus on the role of adult women in modern warfare, including industries related to warfare, and their inclusion or exclusion from combat roles.<n>C.The issue of gender and security is understood as the practical conceptualization of ways in which women have a role in security related issues, and their relative inclusion and exclusion in military conflict and militarization.<n>D.The study of gender and of gender security issues is a complex task, and both terms elude a uniform definition. The concept of gender security broadens terms of security beyond the military sector to also include 'human security'.[SEP]D
+Which of the following best describes what is meant by security in the contemporary world, according to the field of Security Studies?<n>A.'A nation is secure to the extent to which it is not in danger of having to sacrifice core values if it wishes to avoid war, and is able, if challenged, to maintain them by victory in such a war.' Lippman, W.<n>B.'Security itself is a relative freedom from war, coupled with a relatively high expectation that defeat will not be a consequence of any war that should occur.' Bellamy, M.<n>C.'Emancipation is the freeing of people (as individuals and groups) from the physical and human constraints which stop them carrying out what they would freely choose to do . . . Security and emancipation are two sides of the same coin. Emancipation, not power or order, produces true security. Emancipation, theoretically, is security.' Booth, K.<n>D.None of the above[SEP]D
+Which of these is an effective way of securing against cyber threats?<n>A.Complete eradication of threats.<n>B.Ensure that the severity of cyber war as a threat is recognised, and that instances of cyber warfare are identified, publicised, and acted upon immediately.<n>C.All of these options.<n>D.Acceptance that there can be no absolute security, instead design resilient IT systems and build international cooperation and information exchange in order to reduce threat and increase resilience.[SEP]D
+Which of the following are trends to emerge in the global defence trade since the end of the Cold War?<n>A.A growing effort by governments to prevent the spread of weapons, especially of WMDs.<n>B.A growth in volume of the arms trade.<n>C.A change in the nature of the defence trade, linked to the changing nature of conflict.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+In theorising the Responsibility to Protect, fundamental questions are raised about the nature of state sovereignty. Regarding this tension between R2P and notions of sovereignty, which of the following is not an accurate statement?<n>A.In order to legitimise the inter-state interventions required by R2P, Westphalian notions of sovereignty are invoked, specifically the idea that intervention is required to assure international security.<n>B.In order to transcend the intervention-vs.-sovereignty debate, R2P seeks a new definition of sovereignty.<n>C.In order to facilitate the deployment of effective humanitarian intervention, the R2P approach redefines the traditional Westphalian conception of sovereignty.<n>D.The notion conceptualised by the R2P approach is of a sovereignty that is intrinsically linked with responsibilities and the duty to protect the interests of citizens.[SEP]A
+In what ways might international measures be employed? Are they a help or a hindrance?<n>A.Diplomacy cannot achieve agreements among small groups of nations where global agreements have failed. Global endorsement is required to legitimize the process, providing greater cooperation, agreements and great power backing. Failure to attain global consensus on what terrorism is will result in disparities between states' counterterrorism methods which will severely reduce the scope of employing multi-level measures in a consistent and cohesive fashion, and may afford some terrorist groups the opportunity to seek refuge in states whose domestic laws are weaker.<n>B.A great deal of international diplomacy has involved attempts to define terrorism so that all countries could take steps to eradicate it. However, these efforts have largely faltered: countries often support or sympathize with dissidents who use violence against repressive governments; governments in developing countries have wanted to avoid anti-colonial struggles being labelled as terrorism; and countries want to retain a degree of flexibility regarding extradition and punishment of political dissidents.<n>C.Intelligence agencies are highly centralized, organized structures that operate at a maximum functional level within their domestic context. There is no reason to presume that collaboration would enhance their ability to contribute to the prevention of terrorism. The multi-agency approach would also broaden the scope for potential errors, miscommunication, and intelligence failures.<n>D.Multi-partner initiatives to support the reforms necessary for the prevention of terrorism have proved ineffective. Sanctions against countries that provide a territorial base for terrorism may be misplaced, having negligible effects on the terrorist organizations themselves.[SEP]B
+According to Krause and Williams, what agenda would most likely attract scholars to the 'broad church' of security studies?<n>A.To question the referent object, to question the traditional conception of military security as paramount to the state, and to change the way in which security is studied.<n>B.To address security from a positivist perspective, challenging the dominance of traditional security paradigms, and shifting academic attention to the individual as a referent point.<n>C.To question the dominance of liberalism and realism in the international system, to apply critical knowledge to the security dilemma faced by states and to redress the power imbalances that lead to intra-state conflict.<n>D.To account for all possible referent objects and expand the definition of security so far as to allow for a broadening of the school to encompass any agent that threatens those referent objects.[SEP]A
+According to George and Simons, what factors influence the outcomes of an act of coercive diplomacy?<n>A.Global strategic environment; type of provocation; image of war.<n>B.Unilateral or coalitional coercive diplomacy; isolation of the adversary; clarity of objective; strength of motivation and asymmetry of motivation.<n>C.Sense of urgency; strong leadership; domestic support; international support; opponents fear of unacceptable escalation; clarity concerning the precise terms of settlement.<n>D.All of these options. George and Simons distinguish between contextual variables and conditions favouring success, and the idea that they should be used by decisionmakers at different stages in the policymaking process.[SEP]D
+What is the significance of anarchy to the realist explanation of international politics?<n>A.Anarchy means that the state exists as part of society being indistinguishable from national government and the domestic character of the state.<n>B.Anarchy refers to the lack of over-arching power in the international system - there is no controlling power beyond the multiple states. In the absence of such authority, states have their own agenda for achieving security, and can determine their own goals and behaviour.<n>C.Anarchy means that there is little continuity in a government's foreign policy over time. Leaders come and go and their foreign policy changes, which is reflective of different preoccupations and ideologies.<n>D.Anarchy means that the structure of the international system is distinctive because states have a strong sense that they are part of a larger entity in international politics with overarching interests and goals, making association unlimited and important.[SEP]B
+Which of the following ideas have become mainstreamed within human security since the Human Development Report?<n>A.Limiting security analysis to military engagement is too restrictive.<n>B.Security is a contestable concept.<n>C.Focusing security only on violent conflicts is too restrictive.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the statements below is not one of the eight themes of post-Marxist critical security theory identified by Ken Booth as being important to critical security theory?<n>A.All knowledge is a social process.<n>B.The test of theory is emancipation.<n>C.Human society is a constant and unchanging phenomenon.<n>D.Human society is its own invention.[SEP]C
+Which statement best defines the term 'international regime' in relation to liberalism?<n>A.The term international regime refers to the governmental or political apparatus that defines the state within the international system.<n>B.The term refers to a set of formal or informal principles to which governmental actors subscribe in their decision-making on a particular subject.<n>C.International regimes are independent bodies established by a collaboration of governmental and non-state actors to oversee international decision-making processes.<n>D.International regimes are also known as international organisations and play a fundamental role as lobbyists, advocating the views of interest groups to state actors.[SEP]B
+How can we define energy security?<n>A.To achieve energy security is to ensure that there are currently sufficient energy resources to sustain the current consumption and demand for energy across the globe.<n>B.Energy security refers to the ability of the current energy supplies to meet the demands of state military consumption, placing the military at the core of the security paradigm.<n>C.To achieve energy security is to secure the supply of energy that is needed in the current context and in the future, with regards to foreseeable changes in demand where relevant.<n>D.Energy security refers to the ability of individuals, economic and non-state actors to access the energy required for sustaining their growth and development.[SEP]C
+Which of the following statements best describes the characteristics of a weak state?<n>A.The most important characteristics of weak states are their frequent inability to establish and maintain a monopoly of control over the instruments of violence. Even within states with well developed coercive power they do not always retain absolute loyalty and are faced with a real possibility of military intervention. Whilst armed forces are ill-equipped, poorly managed and prone to factional divisions, social actors are powerful enough to resist governance. Therefore, monopoly over the instruments of violence is infrequent.<n>B.Weak states possess high levels of social-political cohesion which is correlated to the hegemonic enforcement idea of the regime, which in turn becomes accepted to the point of being legitimized as the social norm.<n>C.Weak states have a monopoly on the instruments of violence and have the coercive capability to force compliance even when social actors attempt to resist. The regimes lack popular legitimacy, the integrity of the regime's survival is consolidated by power resulting in the naturalization of violence within society.<n>D.Weak states do not utilize coercive capabilities in normal policy. State institutions typically have a developed bureaucracy which legitimizes the regime's ability to rule. Paradoxically, however, the more a weak state exercises its coercive power the more it reinforces its infrastructural power but reduces its ability to rule.[SEP]A
+What is distinguishable about security studies theory?<n>A.Security studies theory refers to the historical systematic distinction between strategic studies and security studies and the interrelation between general International Relations (IR) theory, security studies, and security theory.<n>B.The centre of the security studies debate has been to give form to policy questions - strategy, economy of defence, decision making - and to the systematic division of labour that has governed those distinctions.<n>C.Security theory is a specific subset of security studies and one whose development has gone through distinctive phases and divided more strongly than comparable fields, often without mutual recognition.<n>D.Security debates structured scholarship centred on offensive versus defensive realism, the relative importance of ideational variables and the role of power and institutions in orders and empires.[SEP]C
+How does the preoccupation with human rights affect the human rights orientated school of liberalism?<n>A.Modern human rights oriented liberalism is concerned with self-determination.<n>B.Human rights orientated liberalism will advocate separatism where conflict and bloodshed seem inevitable without it.<n>C.Human rights orientated liberalism is particularly focused on persons subject to economic, sexual, gender, religious, and political persecution, discrimination, or deprivation.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What would be the policy implications of a hierarchical vision of TNC?<n>A.Hierarchical forms of transnational criminal activity are primarily territorially affiliated to a particular state / ethnic-cultural group and have limited transnational potential.<n>B.The hierarchical analysts believe that generally there has been a tendency of officials to have over-inflated the estimation of the levels of violence and wealth generated by their activities. If the wealth is not as great as is widely believed, their threat to the licit economy is vastly reduced.<n>C.Hierarchical forms of organization are highly adaptable and small fluid groups enable a pronounced degree of resilience (attributable to the logic of supply rising to meet demand) against law enforcement efforts confined to rigid ranking of cooperation.<n>D.Hierarchical groups pose a serious degree of harm by their profit-driven crimes under centralized leadership. Targeting the proceeds or leadership would therefore produce a reduction in their threat on the legitimate economy.[SEP]D
+What role does the concept of 'human security' have in our understanding of security studies?<n>A.Human security as a concept has struggled to gain recognition amongst scholars of security studies, or in the policy-making community. There is a general failure to recognise the political and academic value of human security as a concept.<n>B.The concept of human security gained increasing currency in the mid-1990s, serving to highlight critical issues. In particular, the study of human society has focuses on the problem of intra-state violence, which has become the dominant issue for post-Cold War security studies.<n>C.The concept of human security does not challenge traditional state-centric arguments in so far as these concern the protection of the state from external military violence. However, it does show that state-centric realism is insufficient because it does not address the security of people within states.<n>D.Human security has become the dominant concept in understanding contemporary security studies. After the end of the Cold War, the state-centric security paradigm was made irrelevant and today there is a universal understanding that human beings and individuals within states should be the focal point of security.[SEP]C
+What are the specific elements of a comprehensive national defence trade control system?<n>A.Governments should include in their arms trade rules, laws, penalties for their violation.<n>B.Governments should ensure that weapons producers mark their defence items with a unique marking.<n>C.Government police and military forces should establish appropriate weapons stockpile security measures and national authorities should collect and destroy old, outdated, and excess weaponry.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following are Schelling's necessary conditions for compellence success?<n>A.The coercer must not unduly threaten the adversary; threat must be credible; adversary must recognise the legitimacy of coercer's demands; coercer must assure adversary that compliance will not lead to future demands; conflict must not be perceived as a zero-sum game.<n>B.Conveyed threat must be sufficient so as to make non-compliance unbearable; threat must be credible; adversary must be given sufficient time to comply with demand; coercer must assure adversary that compliance will not lead to future demands; conflict must not be perceived as a zero-sum game.<n>C.Conveyed threat must be sufficient so as to make non-compliance unbearable; threat must be credible; adversary must be given sufficient time to comply with demand; coercer must not use fear to coerce the adversary.<n>D.Conveyed threat must be sufficient so as to make non-compliance unbearable; threat must not include military intervention; adversary must be given sufficient time to comply with demand; coercer must assure adversary that compliance will not lead to future demands; conflict must not be perceived as a zero-sum game.[SEP]B
+Which of the following characteristics describe 'Category B' agents, as defined by the US Centers for Disease Control?<n>A.Category B agents are those that present little to no risk or morbidity within infected populations, but can have detrimental effects on the ability of a group to perform physical tasks.<n>B.Unlike Category A agents, B agents refer to emerging security threats which have the potential to be utilised as biological weapons after further development.<n>C.Category B agents include food and water security threats, with moderate morbidity rates.<n>D.Category B agents are characterised by high mortality rates and include agents which are difficult to treat medically.[SEP]C
+When did the cyber-security discourse emerge? (When did politicians, academics, and other agents begin to talk seriously about cyber-security?)<n>A.1970s<n>B.1990s<n>C.1960s<n>D.1980s[SEP]A
+In the context of military security, which of the following is not an obvious benefit of adopting a 'critical' theoretical approach?<n>A.A more critical approach to military security studies will allow the inclusion or adoption of non-realist paradigms, such as social constructivism.<n>B.Critical analysis of military security will draw attention back to traditional conceptions of the state-centric paradigm which have been neglected in recent years, with states favouring human security and other non-traditional approaches instead.<n>C.By implementing a critical analysis we can recognise that traditional conceptions of military security are no longer always salient and may need to be reconsidered.<n>D.A critical approach would recognise the changing ontology of security in the real world. Such changes are evident in the new ways in which war has been conducted in the 20th and 21st century.[SEP]B
+Considering Wendt's three cultures of anarchy; which of the following defines the Lockean culture?<n>A.A culture that exists some of the time, but not all the time, in which no self-restraint exists and actors cannot rely on each other for help.<n>B.A culture characterized by rivalry, which has dominated since the beginning of the modern system of states and in which actors regard each other as rivals but exercise some restraint in violence.<n>C.A culture characterized by friendship, where force and violence is eschewed in favour of cooperation in matters of security.<n>D.A culture within which survival relies on military power, security dilemmas abound, and security is a zero-sum game.[SEP]B
+In what ways does the idea of 'victim' impact on the way in which gender security is regarded?<n>A.Woman as 'victim' is, and continues to be, an important narrative of war stories. In 1990 an estimated 90% of war casualties were civilian, the majority women and children. Reports that women are the primary casualties of war has contributed to the enduring perception that women are dependent on men for protection, and that men are responsible for sacrificing their own well bring for the protection of women and the state (often confused with one another through propaganda and imagery).<n>B.The role of men as intrinsically heroic has been marginalized as the traumas of war, desertion, and conscription become more apparent. When imagining victims, there is no longer a gender divide. Instead, there is a growing perception that those who fight are courageous and heroic, whilst those who do not take on female characteristics.<n>C.Increasing awareness regarding the barbaric nature of warfare and the problems of trauma in war has led to a reversal in the belief that the idea of war is a natural place for males. In contemporary societies across the globe, men are regarded as the victims of gender stereotypes that coerce them into violent behaviour as 'protectors' or aggressors on behalf of the state.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]A
+In what ways is gender applicable to the field of Security Studies?<n>A.Women and children are dependent on the state for protection and Security Studies should include them and account for their needs.<n>B.Biological differences between men and women determine their suitability for different roles in protecting the state or referent object.<n>C.Gender is not applicable to Security Studies - to create a 'gender neutral' security arena we should disregard gender issues.<n>D.Social constructions of 'masculinity' or 'femininity' determine the roles in which men and women are expected to act, by considering these artificial roles we can ask important questions about the ways in which we conceptualize security.[SEP]D
+What is the function of sanctions?<n>A.As a means of exerting economic power to advance peace and freedom.<n>B.To end economic support for morally unacceptable regimes.<n>C.To isolate dangerous regimes and weaken threats to regional or global security.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Given current patterns of industrial development, what are the future prospects for energy security?<n>A.Whilst energy consumption is correlated to levels of industrialisation, developed states of the North continue to increase their demands for energy. This is balanced by a lesser demand from states in the South; due to their lack of industrialisation their demands on energy are forecast to remain low.<n>B.Energy demand in the industrialised states has peaked in recent years and data indicates that consumption levels in the North have become constant and are not likely to increase.<n>C.Whilst forecasts predict that energy consumption in the industrialised states of the North will continue to increase, the major increase in demand will come from the developing states of the South, posing major challenges to global energy security.<n>D.Although demand from developing states is set to increase the global consumption of dwindling energy resources, technological advancements in alternative energy sources, coupled with comprehensive understanding of current resource levels and access, will secure energy supply in the foreseeable future.[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not a correct definition?<n>A.Acting subjects: who or what is acting to produce security or insecurity.<n>B.Substantive content: what being secure looks like and what conditions must exist for us to be able to say we are secure.<n>C.Referent object: whom or what we act to make secure.<n>D.Objective security: when a matter is objectively considered a security issue, regardless of interpretation.[SEP]D
+What external strategies do elites employ?<n>A.An increasingly popular means of bolstering regime security has been the expulsion of foreign workers and non-ethnic nationals and restricting borders to refugees and migrants.<n>B.Weak states seek to avoid alliances with powerful states because alliances and assistance frequently are conditional on democratization and risk penalties if they are not met.<n>C.An increasingly prevalent strategy among weak states has been the employment of private military or security companies and foreign mercenaries as force multipliers to secure the weak state from internal threats.<n>D.Weak states may sometimes militarily engage in action to bolster their regional position and to mobilize internal support against the construction of an imagined external threat. This frequently coincides with economic or social crises as a policy of distraction.[SEP]C
+What problems has the post-Cold War security literature revealed on women, war, development, and security?<n>A.Technological advancements have to some extent rendered the battlefield gender-neutral. 'Virtual' warfare has resolved the historical tension between the citizen and the state security apparatus; if actual combat could be avoided then male and female soldiers could wage war on equal terms. However, technological advancement remains unequal and so the gender situation is different in different contexts, depending on development and security issues.<n>B.The technological capacity to wage war with minimal civilian costs has abolished the threat of physical and biological gender victimization. The contemporary gender divide is structured on 'soft' issues associated with socio-economic hardship.<n>C.Conflict in warfare and the gender divide between men and women is centred on the historical contract between the individual and the state. The 'right to fight' debate has equal meaning and saliency across the globe, and is universally applicable in all situations.<n>D.Nuclear armaments and the threat of mass destruction have rendered the battlefield gender neutral in terms of its destructive capabilities. Whilst historically conventional warfare was conducted on the battlefield in which women were particularly vulnerable to violence, and post-conflict sexual violence, these threats no longer exist.[SEP]A
+How might weapons belonging to state military or police forces arrive on the illicit arms market?<n>A.States are strong enough to ensure that their weaponry is kept within their control and not traded illegally.<n>B.There is no evidence to suggest that state-owned weapons could be traded illicitly as part of the black or grey arms markets.<n>C.Illegal trading by states is the primary way in which weapons purchased legally might end up on the illegal arms market.<n>D.Looting and theft, especially where corruption is endemic, states are weak, and weapons stockpiles are not properly secured.[SEP]D
+In what ways has human security been significant as a concept?<n>A.Human security has put particular emphasis on the nexus between conflict and development, a concept which is very useful. The significance of the nexus between development and conflict is not just that it raises ethical issues about human suffering and inequalities, but that its frequent outcomes, so called state future, has dire local, regional, and global effects.<n>B.From a normative perspective, the concept serves to highlight good global norms. Human security often serves as an umbrella norm. Developing good global norms is not only important for moral and ethical reasons but also because they serve to enhance state and international society.<n>C.The development of the human security concept highlights the view that the threats to humans as well as to state entities are changing and increasing. These changes have spurred debates about the meaning of security and the arguments for its broadening and deepening. Like internal violence, these transnational issues have serious local, regional, and global effects.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of these statements is not accurately applied to Critical Security Studies?<n>A.The referent object can be objectively studied and should be considered accordingly.<n>B.The security analyst and the object of the security should not be regarded as separate.<n>C.Critical Security Studies is a post-positivist approach.<n>D.Critical Security studies questions the epistemological principles of other approaches in Security Studies.[SEP]A
+Can armed forces be linked to environmental security and in what ways?<n>A.Military warfare enhances the ability of people's access to resources and to aid the development in ecologically sustainable ways; it can secure access routes and rights that would otherwise be denied; rebuild infrastructure and equitable access of resources; benefit the management of environmental problems; and also to bolster social institutions and cohesion.<n>B.It is when considering the military and the security institutions that some of the greatest contradictions with the concept of environmental security are raised. War impacts negatively on the sustainable growth of the nation but armed forces may be required to manage the effects.<n>C.Stronger militaries and technological advances have reduced the negative impact on the environment having greater impact with fewer materials, whilst the spectre of mass destruction warfare has been reduced with the ending of the Cold War.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]B
+When considering economic tools for security policy, which of the following is the odd one out?<n>A.Withdrawal of economic trade rights with the domestic market.<n>B.Export controls protecting technological advantage and further foreign policy objectives.<n>C.Control of munitions and arms sales.<n>D.Import restrictions to protect a domestic market from foreign goods.[SEP]A
+What is the market vision of transnational organized crime?<n>A.Market place scholars argue that transnational crime operates like a capitalist marketplace in its scope and extensity of operations. Criminal organizations are thus very resilient to law enforcement efforts by virtue of their sheer size. Of comparative difference is the development of highly sophisticated networks of collaboration between criminal groups that has enabled them to survive under the conditions of the competitive logic of the marketplace.<n>B.Market analysts argue that the criminal alliances create organizations with a high level of wealth and power that far underestimates what government and official estimates attribute to them. Within this perspective the threat to the licit economy is vastly increased.<n>C.Market analysts believe that white-collar and corporate crimes contribute significantly to undermining the licit market. Those organized crime groups are more prone to use violence and corruption than ordinary criminal groups as a result of the extent of profits invested in their activities.<n>D.Market analysts claim that organized crime is highly disorganized, and resembles more a market for illicit goods and services than an organization. Proponents of this view minimize the threat posed by organized criminals to states and societies.[SEP]D
+What impact did the end of the Cold War have on warlord politics?<n>A.Within the context of state collapse, elites deliberately engender disorder for the pursuit of commercial activities and the exploitation of neo-liberal globalized shadow markets which would not otherwise be permissible in normal conditions. Warlord politics represented a new form of regime security forced upon weak state elites.<n>B.Warlord politics represented the entrenchment of traditional patterns of redistributive networks within society but maintained by alternative political sources. Assistance derived from superpowers was superseded by US hegemonic endorsement at the end of the Cold War.<n>C.Warlord politics in response to the rapid global changes inaugurated by the end of the Cold War and by globalization, was a temporary aberration in the normal function of the state and was reflective of the immediate need to secure infrastructural survival.<n>D.Warlord politics was a new phenomenon which represented the opportunistic exploitation of hollowed out state institutions and fragmented armed forces. Commercial activities accumulated in a shadow economy facilitated by the end of the Cold War, not of strategic design.[SEP]A
+In what ways might the effects of chemical weapons affect the decision to deploy them against a target?<n>A.Chemical weapons are a highly complicated means to conduct an assault. The unpredictability of chemicals (the degree of evaporation, stability and concentration) frequently proves to be incommensurate with political objectives.<n>B.Analysts are concerned with the potential ease of chemical manufacturing. Weapons could be quickly and effectively deployed being light, concealable and rapidly deployed. Most weapons can be delivered in a line source for example a crop duster or administered through an aerosol. Dispersal in areas of poor ventilation or closed venues where people are in close proximity could have potentially catastrophic effects.<n>C.Chemical weapons have the potential to cause mass casualties. Moderate exposure to chemicals produces serious side effects and would generate serious casualties if weaponized.<n>D.Wind, temperature and terrain can affect the lethality and persistence of an agent and is dependent on the extensity and degree of contact with the target.[SEP]D
+What is the relationship between war, military security, and security studies?<n>A.War is best regarded as a rational instrument of political policy; it is a continuation of politics by other means.<n>B.War is best regarded as a social aberration, and is the result of catastrophic failure in social cohesion.<n>C.War is an anarchic state in which state or other actors must draw upon exceptional (military) means in order to ensure the protection of their interests.<n>D.War is a state of mass conflict which is inflicted upon state actors as a result of their failure to effectively control the behaviour of their population.[SEP]A
+How has coercive diplomacy featured in contemporary security studies?<n>A.Compellence and coercion through diplomacy are linked with the 'pre-emptive use of force'.<n>B.Coercive diplomacy is a softly-softly approach to international power bargaining, that has been side-lined in recent years.<n>C.Deterrence as a strategy has dominated contemporary instances of coercive diplomacy.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]A
+In what ways is defining coercive diplomacy success problematic?<n>A.Isolation of the effect that the threat of force or the limited use of force, in a given case is dependent on the sufficiency of the "stick" for success. The question to ask is whether the stick employed was sufficient to produce compliance.<n>B.Success is an independent function from the amount of coercion required to produce compliance. Ideally, coercion should be required to solve all disputes. If the threshold from persuasion to coercion is crossed, the degree of success is equated to the production intended outcome: to stop or undo an action.<n>C.In protracted diplomatic affairs involving a series of inconclusive exchanges which results in tactical/temporary successes followed by new acts of non-compliance, the production of the intended outcome (compliance and ceasing of actions) is regarded as a success from a policy goal perspective.<n>D.Coercive diplomacy success resulting from the use of threats and sanctions (inducements may, but need not, be employed) are classified as cheap successes. Successes resulting from the use of limited force count as costly ones. Compliance can only be considered a success if the outcome is lasting.[SEP]D
+In what ways, if any, can the environment be considered a security concern?<n>A.Environmental security entails a consideration of the security of the global environment, as well as its nested sub-systems and social systems beyond the boundaries of the nation state.<n>B.Environmental security is a critical security project in that it questions who and what is to be secured and from what threat by orthodox security policies, or whether linkages between environmental, security and development issues can be made.<n>C.Environmental security is a practical endeavour to assess how environmental change causes violent conflict within and between countries, and the ways in which environmental security can undermine national security.<n>D.All of these options. The environment is both an object to be secured and a source of risk, although it may mean different things to different people. Whilst deepening the concept of security it has both critical and practical dimensions although the utility of the concept is contested.[SEP]D
+Which statement best describes the liberalist attitude towards international organisations?<n>A.Liberalism holds that international organisations can enhance national and international security. It advocates the inclusion of non-governmental organisations and other actors to encourage cooperation and build communities.<n>B.The liberalist advocacy of cooperation as enhancing security is undermined by the failure of international organisations such as the league of nations in preventing global conflicts.<n>C.Under liberalism's different schools of thought, there is a general consensus that the involvement of international organisations in the political system ultimately undermines security by disempowering the state as a unitary actor.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]A
+What is the relationship between culture and social constructivism?<n>A.All of the below.<n>B.Culture is the product of shared identity and interaction, although it is important in understanding the dynamics of social identity, its wider reference to security studies is largely disputed.<n>C.Social constructivism does not regard culture as being an important feature to study, instead focusing on individualistic aspects of identity such as personal interests and ambition.<n>D.Culture is commonly regarded as a set of practices that give meaning to shared experiences and actions; it can impact on how states see security and is crucial in constructing the values and rules that inform identity.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is an impact of common structural adjustment policies on the poor?<n>A.Cost of imports soar, including vital resources such as imported medicines. Basic food prices rise, putting even greater pressure on already stretched household budgets.<n>B.Reduced health, education, and social welfare spending and the introduction of cost-recovery and user-fees put healthcare and education beyond the reach of many ordinary people. Public sector redundancies and salary freezes lead to fewer teachers and doctors.<n>C.Massive redundancies and increased unemployment with no social security provision push families deeper into poverty. Farmers and small companies can no longer afford to borrow money and are forced to reduce production or go out of business.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+How might the diversity of the current global international system impact upon the case for humanitarian intervention?<n>A.The global political arena is dominated by a paradigm of human-security which promotes human security based on core assumptions of what it is to be secure, and which transcend cultural or political diversity.<n>B.Despite the inclusion of a diverse range of political actors, whose cultural, ethical and religious values are often at odds with one another, there exists a general consensus amongst all states that humanitarian intervention is sometimes justified.<n>C.The diversity of states, in terms of their cultural, political, ideological and religious values, results in a global system characterised by radical disagreements on how states should govern themselves and each other. In order to protect this diversity there exist rules of engagement that prohibit interference in the sovereign state, such as humanitarian intervention.<n>D.Within the contemporary global arena there are a number of radically different views on how states should govern themselves and each other. In order to protect this diversity, there exists a need for unifying principles of humanitarian intervention.[SEP]C
+Which of the following are economic objectives of IMF adjustment policies?<n>A.Devaluation to promote exports and reduce demand for imports by raising their prices.<n>B.Tighter monetary and credit policies with higher interest rates to reduce overall demand, and thus demand for imports; to limit or reduce the rate of inflation.<n>C.All of these options.<n>D.Public spending cuts to reduce the budget deficit and slow the growth of government debt.[SEP]C
+To what extent have biological agents been weaponized?<n>A.Military professionals believe that the majority of biological agents can be sufficiently stable in their effects to be used as a weapon. Resource requirements would be minimal as fermenters used to make vaccines could be converted for military production and relatively small quantities of the agent are required to produce highly lethal effects, making them an efficient and effective weapon.<n>B.Construction of the means to transmit biological weapons in warfare has focused on the use of vectors, for example lice, fleas, or mosquitoes, as a mode of transmission as a military weapon. These are favoured because the target would find it difficult to contain the source of the outbreak, placing the infrastructure of the target country under strain.<n>C.Biological agents comprise bacteria, viral, and toxin agents. However, not every disease provides the basis for an effective biological weapon. An agent's storage, delivery, mode of transmission and its very resilience can shape its effects on a target population.<n>D.Inoculation programs against naturally occurring disease have eradicated the potential for viral agents to cause a global pandemic. Vaccination capabilities have undermined calls for the weaponization of viral agents made by some military strategists as most public health authorities have in place programs to deal with a possible outbreak.[SEP]C
+According to Buzan, Waever, and de Wilde, in what ways does the Copenhagen School's approach to Security Studies differ from that of Critical Security Studies?<n>A.The theory and knowledge that underpin each approach are fundamentally at odds with one another. Whilst Critical Security Studies is post-structuralist and constructivist, the Copenhagen School is based on an objectivist epistemology.<n>B.Whilst Critical Security Studies regards security to be a social construction, based on the changeable ideas that form human society, the Copenhagen school disregards this epistemological approach and instead considers security as an issue to be studied objectively from a positivist approach.<n>C.Critical Security Studies regards security to be an empirically definable state, which should be studied from a positivist approach. However, the Copenhagen School views security as a socially constructed entity that denies the validity of an objective approach.<n>D.Neither Critical Security Studies nor the Copenhagen School account for the changing nature of society and its impact on the construction of security.[SEP]A
+What are Fission Nuclear Weapons?<n>A.Fission nuclear weapons are gun-type devices that require a relatively small amount of fissile uranium-235 material to produce a comparatively large explosion because mass and energy becomes interchangeable in the barrel. Implosion devices however are unable to sustain the reaction; the neutron generator is unable to set off the interchange being destroyed in the explosion.<n>B.Implosion fissure devices are constructed with relative ease because unlike the gun-type fissure device it uses high-explosive shaped lenses to compress the fissile material to critical tolerance. Detonation is highly volatile with a high potential of "going critical".<n>C.Fissile weapons are produced by the rapid rearrangement of hydrogen, oxygen, carbon and nitrogen in a chamber, striking each other at high velocities the friction sparking a chemical explosion.<n>D.Gun-type devices are of rugged design using two sub-critical masses fired down a barrel at very high velocities with a high probability of producing a reaction. Implosion devices are more complex, requiring the assembling of shaped charges to compress the fissile material to critical tolerances, and are detonated with more than split-second timing.[SEP]D
+Why is HIV/AIDS considered to be a non-traditional security issue?<n>A.HIV/AIDS is a newly emergent disease that did not exist until relatively late in the 20th century.<n>B.Ill health can threaten the state indirectly, but can also be a threat to other referent objects such as the economy.<n>C.The overwhelming scale of HIV/AIDS requires a new approach in order to theorize its impact on security.<n>D.None of the above - HIV/AIDS is better defined as a traditional security issue.[SEP]B
+Which of the following is an important reason to advocate the process of desecuritization?<n>A.To prevent the erosion of established civil liberties through the removal of special rights and the cessation of extraordinary measures.<n>B.To prevent stagnation of the security realm and facilitate the recognition and securitization of new or more urgent existential threats.<n>C.To prevent the securitization of irrelevant threats and to challenge the legitimacy of currently securitized threats.<n>D.To ensure that securitizing actors conceptualise security threats in terms of those that can be addressed using extraordinary measures.[SEP]A
+Which of the following statements best describes the process of 'medicalization'?<n>A.The term 'medicalization' refers to the process whereby a medical or health issue becomes securitized.<n>B.'Medicalization' is the outcome of security dialogue that discusses threats or risks to national security in terms of medical language.<n>C.An issue is said to be 'medicalized' when it is dismissed as a security threat, instead deemed to be a medical issue concerning health as mutually exclusive from security.<n>D.The perceived 'medicalization' of societies occurs when social issues are increasingly considered and responded to as medical problems.[SEP]D
+How has the conceptualization of health as a security issue changed during the twentieth century?<n>A.Health has long been regarded as a security issue. During the 20th century there was an increasingly sense of panic about the potential damage of a serious pandemic disease outbreak in the newly globalised world. Medical advances and a series of successful contained outbreaks have largely allayed these fears.<n>B.Since the early 20th century there has been growing recognition of the success in medical and technological advancements that have the ability to keep infectious diseases at bay in the modern population.<n>C.Pandemic disease is a relatively new threat to security, emerging only in the early 19th century. Therefore, human populations are still formulating and testing new ways of controlling outbreaks and minimising their impact on security.<n>D.During the 20th century, security analysts were predisposed to focus on the potential threat of nuclear confrontation and military combat. Since the reduction in these threats, there has emerged a series of pandemic diseases, and a sense of growing unease at the future impact of more serious outbreaks in an increasingly globalised population.[SEP]D
+Which statement best describes the circumstances that have shaped the emergence of peace studies as a field of research?<n>A.Peace studies developed after the Second World War as a response to the failure of International Relations to prevent global conflict following World War I. Initially, the field was conditioned by the nuclear arms race and East-West divide that characterised the Cold War, but was quick to embrace environmental concerns and the issues surrounding the North-South wealth/poverty divide.<n>B.Peace studies developed as a discipline following the Cold War when the security studies paradigm shifted to include areas of concern such as environmental, societal and economic security. As a field of research peace studies adopts a Euro-centric approach to security and has thus been defined by developments within the West and wealthier nations.<n>C.Peace studies emerged as a response to the developing nuclear capability of states during the Cold War. The aim of peace studies is to secure the state as a referent object and does this through the study of weapons accumulation. The approach is particularly focused on the nuclear arms race between East and West.<n>D.Developed as a response to World War I, peace studies focuses on disparities in wealth and resource allocation that exist within the global system, with the aim of promoting peace through the equal distribution of these resources.[SEP]A
+Which of these statements is commonly regarded as a tangible benefit of the securitization process?<n>A.Securitizing injects urgency into an issue and leads to a sustained mobilization of political support and deployment of resources.<n>B.Securitization encourages more efficient handling of complex problems.<n>C.Securitization mobilizes popular support for policies in specific areas by calling them security relevant and encourages the allocation of more resources.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+In what ways might a society be threatened?<n>A.Societies are threatened when their linguistic heritage and traditions are under attack. The inability to use and develop traditional language signifies the destruction of a society.<n>B.Threats to societal security exist when a society regards its collective identity as being under question. Such circumstances include the suppression of expression and interference with a society's ability to reproduce itself across generations.<n>C.Military threats to societies in the form of external aggression, mainly through de-population policies with the intent of preventing collective identities from being reproduced over generations.<n>D.Migratory influxes into a host receiving state results in a shift in the composition of the population resulting in horizontal competition or vertical competition. This is not an outright threat to survival but part of wider uncontrollable processes of evolutionary identity.[SEP]B
+Which of these statements best defines the concepts of corporate and social identity?<n>A.An actor can have only one social identity, and this forms the basis for developing other identities. In contrast, an actor may have multiple corporate identities which vary in importance.<n>B.Corporate identity refers to the intrinsic, self-realized identity of an actor. Social identity refers to 'sets of meanings that an actor attributes to itself while taking the perspective of others'. Actors can have multiple social identities.<n>C.Corporate identity is a type of social identity that is constructed through the interaction of an actor with others within the international system.<n>D.Social identity can also be described as 'role' identity. Like corporate identity, an actor's social identity is formed through interaction and does not exist as an intrinsic concept.[SEP]B
+In what ways has conflict been a concern of the environmental security agenda for strong states?<n>A.Environmental change can be a cause of war between countries, largely centred on resource scarcity interrelated with conflict. There is therefore a strong connection between environmental degradation and violence; resources as strategic goals and strategic tools may cause violence if there is inequity.<n>B.Population growth and its relationship to environmental degradation can lead to environmentally caused conflict. There is therefore a linear link between population growth and environmental change, and environmental change is the critical determinant in the production of violence.<n>C.Common findings in research organizations investigating environmental violence have failed to find quantifiable relationships between environmental and social variables and the cause of war. Analysis of aggregated data failed to establish a common causal mechanism. The extensity of possible variables being simply too vast, mitigating any definitive relationship.<n>D.Analysis of environmental violence research shows that there is a tendency among 'strong states' to be less prone to internal violent conflicts whereas states undergoing significant economic and political transitions are more prone to violent conflict. Environmental change is unlikely to be a cause of war but can be a contributory factor.[SEP]D
+Threats to IT systems can be classified in many ways; in this chapter three different categories of threat are listed. According to this classification, which of the following would be classified as a 'Failure'?<n>A.Security systems were not adequate to protect the system against attack from a hacking group, and sensitive data was lost.<n>B.There is a programming error in the software which causes the system to perform badly.<n>C.All of these options.<n>D.The IT system has failed due to a random unexpected event, such as a tsunami which destroys key electronic equipment.[SEP]B
+Which of the following reasons might influence a state's decision to join an alliance such as NATO?<n>A.More powerful states may also create alliances in order to extend their protective umbrella over weaker friendly states.<n>B.States may seek to join an alliance if they believe that their own resources are inadequate to maintain their sovereignty and security.<n>C.An alliance can become attractive to states when a potential hegemonic power threatens the other states in that system.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What is the 'security dilemma' that faces weak states?<n>A.The inability of the state to provide stability creates a situation wherein each component of society competes to preserve its well-being thereby engendering insecurity. The condition is self-perpetuating - a semi-permanent situation of emergent anarchy because measures to secure the regime will provoke greater resistance.<n>B.The weak state insecurity dilemma is primarily an external condition creating a situation for the weak state similar to structural anarchy, wherein a weak state creates insecurity in the region when taking measures to improve its own regional standing.<n>C.The weak state insecurity dilemma emerges out of competition between each component of society to preserve and protect the longevity of their well-being and interests. However, the ruling elite remain separate from the social sphere of contestation producing a policy dilemma; use of the monopoly of instruments of violence to restore order will reduce the regime's infrastructural core.<n>D.Weak state insecurity dilemmas are born out of a lack of political and institutional centring with a monopoly of force. However, the engagement of armed forces to strengthen institutions may stop this process. Inability to foster 'stateness' is reversed by the use of violence. Social disquiet is a semi-permanent situation of emergent but not developed anarchy.[SEP]A
+Which of the following does not constitute a fundamental ontological principle of social constructivism?<n>A.Normative or ideational structures are important and matter as much as, if not more than, material structures.<n>B.Identities are important.<n>C.Anarchy is an inescapable feature of the international system.<n>D.Agents and structures are mutually constituted.[SEP]C
+Historical materialism is founded on the ideas and philosophies of which theorists?<n>A.Barry Buzan and Ole Waever<n>B.Kenneth Waltz and Hans Morgenthau<n>C.Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels<n>D.Adam Smith and Karl Marx[SEP]C
+What internal security policy options are available to elites?<n>A.Elites create negative inducements for non support of the regime. Redistribution as a means of denial to the power structure in the form of "elite disenfranchisement" which may include diversion of resources, disarmament and denial of access to commercial activity routes.<n>B.Lacking infrastructural capacity and wider social legitimacy, weak state elites are often forced to rely on coercive power. However, a key dilemma is that the instruments of violence can be a threat to the regime requiring the deliberate undermining of armed forces.<n>C.Elites attempt to foster a new politics of identity in which ethnic consciousness is superseded by ideologies orientated around the myth of the regime.<n>D.Weak states have cultivated international sponsorship and have initiated processes of democratic reform so as to gain popular legitimacy internally whilst bolstering its international legitimacy externally.[SEP]B
+Are strategies of Arms Control and Deterrence useful in cyber-security?<n>A.No, arms control does not serve any purpose outside the realm of traditional military weapons.<n>B.Yes, successful policies of arms control and deterrence have translated well from other security realms, such as nuclear weapons control strategies.<n>C.Effective deterrence requires international cooperation which is achievable in theory, but the verification required for traditional arms control strategies is impossible in cyber(ed) warfare.<n>D.Only arms control is unproblematic, deterrence has failed because international cooperation cannot be reached and common rules or practices cannot be established.[SEP]C
+In what ways does the perspective on terrorism influence the response a government will take?<n>A.Within the disease prescription, reform packages become part of the government response to reduce the appeal of the terrorist group within the population. However, reforms may encourage terrorists to continue their violent activities because they are being rewarded. Under these conditions reforms may become concessions that fuel the violence rather than a mechanism for ending it. It is also clear that reforms may not eliminate the presence of terrorism.<n>B.Contemporary responses to terrorism have been taken within the context of the war on terror analogy, in which the norms of retaliation and punishment prevail. Implicit within this view is the justification for pre-emptive action taken against training facilities, headquarters, sources of funding, and even the assassination of key individuals.<n>C.Whilst the warfare analogy presumes deterrence at times, deterrence is more central to a justice system. The extent of pre-emption available in a normal criminal context is the detention of suspects or judicial harassment.<n>D.All of these options. Responses to terrorist attacks vary either explicitly or implicitly, if warfare is seen as warfare, crime, or disease.[SEP]D
+How might the period of academic institutionalization be assessed?<n>A.The distinct phenomenon of strategic studies emerged as an imported American specialty. It emerged in the US and was exported to Europe. European security studies was "theory has already been done" kind of work.<n>B.The think tanks became routine producers of narrow technical problem-solving succumbing to 'hectic empiricism': the internal logic of its key contribution (deterrence) broke down.<n>C.Peace research developed on a parallel but separate track, and particularly the distinct critical branch was seen neither by its representatives nor by security studies as part of the latter.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+In what ways may the security dimensions of infectious disease be considered in the national security framework?<n>A.The physical health of armed forces is a paramount concern within the traditional security paradigm, and the threat of disease is exacerbated by the physical and sociological conditions under which military personal operate, particularly during combat.<n>B.The innate human fear of microbes makes them particularly amenable to being portrayed not just as important health issues, but as national-security threats as well.<n>C.Diseases that traditionally affect certain regions of the world, due to their epidemiologic nature or for socio-economic reasons, are increasingly perceived by national governments as potential threats as a result of globalisation.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+What is the role of non-governmental organisations (NGOs) in the global defence trade?<n>A.Non-governmental organisations are the primary actors in modern arms control measures.<n>B.Non-governmental agencies are unable to access the resources and information needed to develop effective policy or action on arms control.<n>C.Non-governmental groups have played a significant and effective role in developing arms control measures in recent years.<n>D.There is a serious lack of involvement by non-governmental actors in controlling the global defence trade.[SEP]C
+The concept of R2P rests on three pillars, which of these is widely acclaimed to be the most important?<n>A.The responsibility to retaliate.<n>B.The responsibility to prevent.<n>C.The responsibility to rebuild.<n>D.The responsibility to react.[SEP]B
+In the context of globalization, how can we best define the term 'development'?<n>A.The term development refers to the human condition in which there is freedom from fear and want; there are sufficient resources to sustain life and this life can exist in a state free from the threat, or perceived threat, of sudden interruption.<n>B.To be considered as developed, a nation must have achieved certain economic and political status within the global state system; the criterion for what constitutes a 'developed' state is thus defined by those requirements of interaction in this system.<n>C.Development is a means to address the inequalities that accompany neoliberal globalization. In this context, development refers to the ability of a population or community to effectively utilize resources and increase efficiency in production and distribution, promoting the more equitable distribution of income within society.<n>D.Development of a community refers to the ideological and ethical value systems to which its population subscribes. In the globalised international system this refers to the adoption of western liberal democratic ideology and free market economics.[SEP]C
+Which of the following best describes Eurocentrism?<n>A.Eurocentrism is a style of analysis in which European societies are compared to non-European societies to produce an unbiased comparison of the relative merits of each.<n>B.Eurocentrism is a thought style in which the assessment and evaluation of non-European societies is couched in terms of the cultural assumptions and biases of Europeans.<n>C.Eurocentrism describes studies or scholarly work that only consider European political or economic systems.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]B
+What is meant by the term 'cyber-crime'?<n>A.Any crime that uses computers to jeopardise or attempt to jeopardise national security<n>B.The use of computer networks to commit financial or identity fraud<n>C.The theft of digital information<n>D.Any crime that involves computers and networks[SEP]D
+How might global inequality present a threat to global security?<n>A.Human security is threatened by global inequality, because 3s of the world population do not share the benefits of globalisation. However, this inequality does not translate into political instability or involve military action.<n>B.Global inequality creates disenfranchised populations who, although discontent with their situation, lack the agency to rebel or protest.<n>C.Revolutionary uprisings are likely to occur; people of the world who have been left behind by neoliberal globalisation can become radicalised and rebel against those who have benefitted from the economic policies that have failed them.<n>D.Global inequality does not present a significant threat to global security.[SEP]C
+What is the future of WMD?<n>A.The viability of the CWC and BCW providing a concrete basis in international law to prevent the proliferation of chemical and biological weapons is dubious. The Proliferation Security Initiative to prevent the illicit trade in materials relating to chemical and nuclear weapons is an equally piecemeal pursuit. Whilst they may serve some utility as a framework for diplomatic exchanges, they are essentially toothless bodies lacking the political will to establish an authority with the powers to police the control and use of these weapons.<n>B.The International Non-proliferation Regime has been rendered effectively defunct in the post-Cold War climate. State actors seeking to develop their own weapons capabilities have de-stabilized norms governing the use and control of WMD. This has been evidenced by severe splits in the body following the 1998 Indian and Pakistani nuclear testing and the withdrawal of great power support following the US Senate's decision not to ratify the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.<n>C.Contemporary concern has been pacified by the fact that WMD threat has greatly diminished with the end of the Cold War. A number of deployed Soviet (Russian) and strategic warheads and US tactical nuclear weapons have been withdrawn from service thereby removing the threat of total war by massive nuclear exchange.<n>D.WMD terrorism poses a security threat that is not easily met by today's policy community or military establishments. The second strike rule is virtually obsolete because of the difficulty of locating such groups and deterrence is an unviable strategy given that objective of attacks are frequently politically, ideologically or religiously motivated.[SEP]D
+In which ways does realism differ from social constructivism in the theorisation of identity within international relations?<n>A.Social constructivism employs theories of causality in the study of international relations, in addition to prioritising the study of identity as a socially constructed theory. In contrast, realism regards state of actor behaviour in the international system to follow an 'action-response' pattern.<n>B.Realism regards identity as a crucial point for consideration in international relations. Realist theory is based on the assumption that identity informs behaviour.<n>C.Realism is based in the notion of causality whilst social constructivism relies on theories of identity that are based in intersubjective meanings.<n>D.Social constructivists regard the state as an independent unit whose behaviour is shaped by the requirements of the international system, whilst realists regard state interaction as being the natural progression of identity formulation.[SEP]C
+What is 'malware'?<n>A.A virus or worm<n>B.A Trojan horse<n>C.A hacker tool<n>D.A corrupted program[SEP]C
+For post-structuralists, which of the following is the most important impact of security studies?<n>A.Security studies contributes to the literature and builds greater theoretical understanding of the subject.<n>B.Security studies records the history of modern warfare.<n>C.Security studies teaches a new generation about the reality of warfare and strategy.<n>D.Security studies creates and perpetuates claims that shape warfare, defining legitimacy, favouring some subjects and marginalising others.[SEP]D
+In what ways can the different relationship between US and European security studies be explained?<n>A.The different relationship to the concept of security: in Europe the debate has stayed as part of politico-self-reflection of the scholar who 'does security;' whereas in the US, the question of the concept of security is seen at the most a necessary 'define your' terms' operation.<n>B.The different relationship to the exact form of knowledge that is valued. The US is more rationalist, Europe the more reflectivist. In the US security studies debate hypothesis is typically examined as cause-effect relationships, tied into general debates and with measurement of ideational variables.<n>C.In the US major competing explanations emphasized, on the one hand, the US's liberal hegemony, and, on the other hand, the purely power based stability of presumed unipolarity in which balancing becomes impossible.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following statements does not describe 'nations'?<n>A.Nations may be made up of different ethnic-identity groups.<n>B.Nations may be difficult to distinguish from societies.<n>C.Nations are defined by the boundaries and borders of the state.<n>D.Nations may contain multiple religious identity groups.[SEP]C
+In what ways have feminist and critical security investigations of the 1980s and 1990s expanded our understanding of gender security issues?<n>A.Investigations into the consequences of state security policies showed that women were subject to masculine dominated war policies as the likely victims as casualties of war or as post conflict targets. Women are increasingly subject to violence as a product of social circumstance.<n>B.Gendered consequences of security issues have not challenged international relations theory. Constructivist theories of the state were mainstreamed without undermining the ideas of state as the centre of military power, or as the highest organization of human community.<n>C.Feminist and critical security theory shows us that war can have gendered consequences. Recognition of those consequences has allowed us to address the way in which we think about 'male' and 'female' expectations in warfare, and has shaped the way in which we theorise, participate, and protest against those roles.<n>D.The literature that emerged in the 1980s and 1990s was primarily concerned with the ways in which women had served the purposes of nationalist campaigns, focusing on the biological characteristics of women as sexually reproductive beings, and with little focus on critical analysis.[SEP]C
+What preventative security measures might a government take in defence of a potential future terrorist attack?<n>A.Prevention is normally associated with the concept of terrorism as war or crime. All governments will practice prevention (seen as repression from the terrorist perspective) by seeking to arrest or eliminate those actively involved in the violence. Security forces attack the terrorists before they strike (war) or they are arrested after the attack (crime).<n>B.Large terrorist organizations are hard to penetrate, being highly cohesive and centralized in structure. In both the warfare and criminal model, intelligence is obtained by two methods; firstly to elicit information from captured terrorists or secondly from an informer within the group. An intelligence coup greatly enhances the prospect of stopping terrorist operations once the larger group has been compromised.<n>C.Prevention of terrorism is a highly controversial policy designed to reduce the appeal of terrorism within the population through reform packages. The method is characterized by diplomatic exchanges. However, as a preventative method it has been questioned and it is argued to resemble concessionary politics.<n>D.Prevention is conceived as securing the physical integrity of targets and key political installations, particularly weapons installations, national buildings, national or cultural symbols, or defence deployments. Protecting possible targets of the state enhances the wellbeing of more vulnerable targets. Terrorists may move to more convenient territory to target their objectives which make it more difficult to control.[SEP]A
+In what ways can a distinction be made between limited force and full-scale force?<n>A.The distinction between limited force and full-scale force is the second process of coercive diplomacy. Coercive diplomacy only fails if the coercer fails to achieve its defined goals and fails to defeat its adversary in the second stage.<n>B.Generally the distinction between brute and limited force is negligible. Resort to air or sea power constitutes an equal coercive capacity to a conventional ground offensive. Military action always results from a failure of negotiations and from a shift from the diplomatic to the military sphere.<n>C.The distinction between limited force and brute force is important because the amount of force that is used to attain the coercer's interests defines the type of outcome that is achieved. If a positive policy outcome is achieved, then we can say that limited force has been employed.<n>D.The distinction between limited force and full-scale war is crucial because resort to brute force means that diplomacy has failed. The distinction is not based on the amount of force or the type, but on the purpose that the use of force seeks to accomplish and the element of choice left to the adversary. In essence, limited force is a bargaining tool.[SEP]D
+What are the challenges for the future of security studies?<n>A.The most obvious issue of joint concern during the 2000s was terror and order, although fast- rising concerns over environmental/climate security could easily provide another big linking issue.<n>B.The fate of security studies depends on its ability to prevail in the general debates in the discipline of IR. It is very unlikely that the internal dynamics of the theory debate will be decided by a general prevalence of one of the current debates.<n>C.Both the US and European analysts will be working on the role and nature of technology, globalization, risk society and the international economic order. This picture shows that there will be a lot of points of contact between the currently disconnected fields of theory.<n>D.All of these options.[SEP]D
+Which of the following is the odd one out?<n>A.Institutional constraints and resource constraints.<n>B.Information and time horizon.<n>C.Goals.<n>D.Vectors of economic incentives.[SEP]D
+Within Critical Security Studies, what is the referent object of security?<n>A.There is no specific referent point.<n>B.The state and state apparatus.<n>C.The environment.<n>D.The people and their collectives.[SEP]A
+Why is coercive diplomacy hard? What are the inherent difficulties?<n>A.Perpetual, psychological and emotional factors are precluded from the adversary's calculations. In no-win situations therefore the adversary might calculate that temporary compliance is the best strategic option to buy time.<n>B.Coercive diplomacy leaves too much room for compromise. Actors engaging in such behaviour are unlikely to perceive their vital interests as threatened and regard issues as zero-sum because they are aware that force will be used. As a consequence coercive diplomacy can lead to lengthy resolution discussions.<n>C.The success ultimately rests on perceptual, psychological and emotional factors, giving rise to the risk that misperception or miscalculation will defeat even a well-executed strategy that otherwise meets all the requirements for success.<n>D.The political scope for offering inducements can become unlimited. The problem becomes particularly underlined when the risk of terrorism, WMD or equal military capability comes into play. Inducements can appear to look like concessionary politics and blur the line of what constitutes a success defined as the fear of inescapable escalation.[SEP]C

datasets/MMLU/sociology.txt

+Mass-society theory suggests that:<n>A.the content of the media is determined by market forces<n>B.the subordinate classes are dominated by the ideology of the ruling class<n>C.the media manipulate 'the masses' as vulnerable, passive consumers<n>D.audiences make selective interpretations of media messages[SEP]C
+The ecological approach to urban sociology involved studying:<n>A.how social groups colonized different areas of the city and competed for resources<n>B.the forms of wildlife and natural habitats that could be found on the edges of the city<n>C.the way in which people organized collective protests about environmental issues<n>D.how men and women used the city's public spaces differently[SEP]A
+Becker proclaimed that cannabis use was:<n>A.increasing throughout all sections of youth in the 1970s<n>B.learned gradually through the social processes of a deviant career<n>C.a dangerous pastime that young people should not be allowed to pursue<n>D.not as enjoyable as other sociologists had suggested[SEP]B
+The middle classes that developed over the nineteenth century were:<n>A.an urban set, involved in civic bodies and voluntary associations<n>B.too diverse to have a strong sense of class consciousness<n>C.often involved in 'white collar' work<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Technological forms of surveillance have made it easier to:<n>A.access and exchange 'private' information about consumers<n>B.reduce prison overcrowding by the use of electronic tagging<n>C.monitor employees' activities at work<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+The concept of gemeinschaft developed by Ferdinand Tönnies describes basically the same relational characteristics as<n>A.organic solidarity<n>B.mechanical solidarity<n>C.gesellschaft<n>D.anomie[SEP]B
+There was a growth in income inequality in the 1980s because:<n>A.rates of income tax increased equally for all occupational groups<n>B.there were more professional jobs available but not enough people to fill them<n>C.the price of consumer goods rose at a higher rate than earnings<n>D.growing unemployment made more people dependent on welfare benefits[SEP]D
+If a deviant act is 'normalized', it is:<n>A.recognised as breaking an important norm of behaviour<n>B.seen a temporary aberration from an otherwise 'normal' character<n>C.the first step in establishing a deviant career<n>D.attributed to the person's genetic or anatomical make up[SEP]B
+In the debate about the 'managerial revolution', John Scott (1997) argued that:<n>A.owners still exercised control through groups of shareholders and interlocking directorships<n>B.ownership and management were becoming increasingly separate functions<n>C.the techniques of scientific management were overly bureaucratic and inefficient<n>D.managers were becoming dissatisfied with their working conditions and planned to overthrow the owners of businesses[SEP]A
+Marxist feminists explain patriarchy in terms of:<n>A.a lack of equal rights and opportunities for men and women<n>B.sex classes, through which men oppress women economically, politically and sexually<n>C.women's domestic labour being exploited by the capitalist economy<n>D.the dual systems of capitalism and male domination[SEP]C
+Which of the following was not defined by Giddens (1998) as part of New Labour's 'third way':<n>A.the democratization of the family<n>B.putting an end to privatization<n>C.positive welfare: 'a hand up, not a hand-out'<n>D.the strengthening of civil society[SEP]B
+Anti-psychiatrists like Laing & Esterson believed that:<n>A.Psychiatry was an out-moded form of treatment and should be replaced by alternative therapies like aromatherapy and kinesiology<n>B.Mental illnesses were biological in origin, so there was no point in studying 'the mind' as experienced by the patient<n>C.Psychiatrists were agents of capitalism who tried to instill ruling class ideology into their patients<n>D.Behaviour that seemed bizarre could be seen as a reasonable response to disturbed patterns of family interaction[SEP]D
+Butler & Stokes (1969) suggested that working class support for the Labour Party arose from:<n>A.socialization into working class families and communities<n>B.rational calculation of self-interest<n>C.issue-based concerns about culture and lifestyle<n>D.false consciousness and the acceptance of hegemonic values[SEP]A
+In contemporary societies, social institutions are:<n>A.highly specialized, interrelated sets of social practices<n>B.disorganized social relations in a postmodern world<n>C.virtual communities in cyberspace<n>D.no longer relevant to sociology[SEP]A
+The term 'emotion work' (Hochschild 1983) refers to:<n>A.the techniques used to consciously manage and present emotions that are deemed appropriate for public settings of interaction<n>B.the work done by psychologists, counselors and therapists to help clients with mental and emotional problems<n>C.experiences such as grieving and falling in love, which demand a lot of emotional energy from a person<n>D.the way in which increasing levels of risk and anxiety have made us think more reflexively about our self-identities[SEP]A
+When sociologists study the structure of layers in society and people's movement between them, they call this:<n>A.social stratification<n>B.social control<n>C.social conflict<n>D.social solidarity[SEP]A
+The four ideal types of social action that Weber identified were as follows: instrumentally-rational, value-rational, traditional, and...<n>A.affectual<n>B.affective<n>C.effective<n>D.infected[SEP]A
+An ecclesia is:<n>A.a religious organization that claims total spiritual authority over its members<n>B.a church organized around voluntary rather than compulsory membership<n>C.a sect or cult with a very small following<n>D.a hierarchy of priests or other spiritual leaders[SEP]A
+After slavery was abolished in the USA and British Empire, policy makers claimed that former slaves migrating to these cities would experience:<n>A.assimilation<n>B.adaptation<n>C.discrimination<n>D.compensation[SEP]A
+Sutherland's study of the 'professional thief' suggested that:<n>A.people are socialized into a life of crime by associating with others who define it in positive terms<n>B.the majority of crime is committed by middle class people in professional occupations<n>C.those who were arrested and charged with theft did not define themselves as thieves<n>D.the most dangerous criminals on the street were those who were highly skilled thieves[SEP]A
+Which of the following policies did the New Labour government not pursue?<n>A.setting and streaming pupils by ability<n>B.parental choice of school<n>C.supporting LEAs that appeared to be failing<n>D.state regulation and control of the curriculum[SEP]C
+Stone's research suggests that prior to industrialization, the nuclear family:<n>A.did not exist in any form<n>B.had begun to disappear, as extended networks of kin became more important<n>C.had begun to emerge through the separation of work and home life<n>D.was simply another institution of patriarchal control[SEP]C
+Statistics about rural, suburban, and urban patterns of development and mobility are almost always reported based on a geographical area labeled as Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSA). What constitutes an MSA?<n>A.It includes only the 10 largest cities in the United States.<n>B.It is composed of at least one central city with a population of at least 50,000 and it surrounds densely urbanized counties.<n>C.It is an area that experiences strong storms at least 50 percent of the year.<n>D.It is a large city with a population of at least 1 million and is immediately surrounded by suburbs.[SEP]B
+Mosca and Pareto identified the ruling elite as:<n>A.a minority group who fill all the top positions of political authority<n>B.a coalition of social forces with specific skills and abilities<n>C.a group who circulate between high status positions and exclude others<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Bourdieu attributed the reproduction of class to:<n>A.cults of the capital<n>B.capital culture<n>C.cultural capital<n>D.culpable capture[SEP]C
+Secularization involves the two related ideas of:<n>A.disappointment and disproportion<n>B.disbelief and disintegration<n>C.disengagement and disenchantment<n>D.distribution and distillation[SEP]C
+The general fertility rate fell between 1964 and 2000 because of:<n>A.increases in the age of marriage and the age at which childbearing begins<n>B.there being fewer women of childbearing age than there were in the first half of the century<n>C.errors in the measurement of birth rates and production of statistics<n>D.the risk of diseases caused by poverty, poor housing and bad sanitation[SEP]A
+Howard's idea of the garden city consisted of:<n>A.six small towns surrounded by green belts and linked to a larger central city<n>B.planning cities to have plenty of trees, flowers and public gardens<n>C.each privately owned house to have its own front and back garden<n>D.tower blocks to displace the population vertically and leave most of the land available as green open spaces[SEP]A
+The 'third age' of the life course is said to involve:<n>A.active non-work and independence after retirement<n>B.full time employment, family-building and adult responsibility<n>C.illness, isolation and increasing dependence on others<n>D.the transition from education to work, and distinctive youth cultures[SEP]A
+Weber (1919) said that the state's monopoly of the use of force was legitimated by:<n>A.charismatic authority<n>B.rational-legal authority<n>C.traditional authority<n>D.value-rational authority[SEP]B
+Sullivan's (2000) study suggested that the proportion of housework men did was greatest when:<n>A.they had rediscovered themselves as 'new men'<n>B.their wives were at home and nagged them all the time<n>C.exciting gadgets like the hoover and electric iron were invented<n>D.they were unemployed or both partners worked full time[SEP]D
+The shift from custodial to joint parenthood after divorce means that:<n>A.fathers are more likely to be absent from their children's lives<n>B.one parent has total responsibility for the child's welfare and socialization<n>C.both parents are expected to co-operate in the continued care of their children<n>D.parents must provide for all of their children in equal measure[SEP]C
+Émile Durkheim believed the primary focus of sociology should be which of the following?<n>A.Social action<n>B.Social facts<n>C.Class relations<n>D.Cultural dynamics[SEP]B
+The term "sociology" was coined in the early 1800s by which of the following?<n>A.Auguste Comte<n>B.Robert K. Merton<n>C.Karl Marx<n>D.Emile Durkheim[SEP]A
+In their study of depression, Brown & Harris (1978) found that:<n>A.women's susceptibility to stress depended on their levels of social support<n>B.self-reported depression is highest amongst men and the relatively affluent<n>C.men and women have fairly similar levels of diagnosed depression<n>D.men are more vulnerable to depression because of conventional gender roles[SEP]A
+The alternative form of 'network organization' means that:<n>A.work can be subcontracted out to independent suppliers and retailers<n>B.business transactions occur only through electronic communication<n>C.the Japanese model is applied, through lateral networks of flexible roles<n>D.activities are redistributed equally between men and women[SEP]A
+Margaret Mead suggested that:<n>A.adolescence and gender roles varied between societies and so were culturally determined<n>B.gender roles in three New Guinea societies were identical and so must be biologically determined<n>C.adolescence in the USA is a time of relative calm compared to the experience in Japan and Europe<n>D.anthropological fieldwork can be problematic because the researcher's values affect the way they interpret their observations[SEP]A
+The term 'secondary deviation' refers to:<n>A.the punishment or stigmatization of deviant acts<n>B.the labelling of an act as deviant through social reactions to it<n>C.the ways in which taking on a deviant role affects future action<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+The effect of the Internet upon the public sphere has been to:<n>A.repress it, by promoting only the interests of elite groups<n>B.revive it, by reaffirming a commitment to freedom of speech<n>C.reproduce it, by emphasizing face-to-face contact with peer groups<n>D.replace it with a superior form of communication[SEP]B
+Weber said that the 'spirit of capitalism' could be traced back to:<n>A.the movement towards religious pluralism<n>B.inspirational Protestant groups who revived religious ideas<n>C.new religious movements who rejected traditional forms of labour<n>D.Calvinists who engaged in ascetic practices to gain signs of salvation[SEP]D
+The terms 'crisis of the 1970s' is used to refer to:<n>A.declining profits and rising unemployment<n>B.the eradication of the welfare state<n>C.rising divorce rates and the decline of the traditional family<n>D.an unfortunate twist in fashion sensibility[SEP]A
+The Macpherson Report highlighted the increasing problem of:<n>A.hate crimes: violence against ethnic minorities simply because of their race<n>B.institutional racism: systematic forms of disadvantage built into the routines and practices of social institutions<n>C.overt racism in the police force that must be tackled by institutional reforms<n>D.growing numbers of asylum seekers in need of long term accommodation[SEP]B
+Seven people standing silently while waiting for a bus at a bus stop is an example of which of the following?<n>A.A primary group<n>B.A secondary group<n>C.An aggregate<n>D.A social category[SEP]C
+Environmentalist social movements are global in the sense that:<n>A.they increase our awareness of risks that affect the whole planet<n>B.they appeal to universal values and human rights<n>C.they use global media to generate publicity<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Chodorow (1978) argued that gender socialization occurred through:<n>A.both boys and girls being closely attached to their mothers, but then boys breaking away<n>B.girls being attached to their mothers but then breaking away<n>C.boys being attached to their fathers and girls to their mothers<n>D.both boys and girls being closely attached to their fathers, but girls breaking away[SEP]A
+The 'new man' of the 1980s was alleged to be:<n>A.sensitive, caring, and emotional<n>B.laddish, aggressive, and violent<n>C.a strong and dependable breadwinner<n>D.openly bisexual and proud of it[SEP]A
+In the 1960s, comprehensive schools did not eradicate class inequalities in education because:<n>A.they tended to recruit pupils from the inner cities and traditionally working class areas<n>B.selective schools could still 'cream off' the most able pupils, while the comprehensives put children into ability streams<n>C.teachers in comprehensive schools used the restricted code in the classroom, whereas working class pupils used elaborated codes of speech<n>D.national testing and league tables made the new schools highly competitive and selective[SEP]B
+In idealized views of science, the experimental method is said to involve:<n>A.testing out new research methods to see which one works best<n>B.isolating and measuring the effect of one variable upon another<n>C.using personal beliefs and values to decide what to study<n>D.interpreting data subjectively, drawing on theoretical paradigms[SEP]B
+An 'open' society is one that:<n>A.grants every member equal status<n>B.does not have any official secrets in its government<n>C.has permissive attitudes towards sexual behaviour<n>D.allows people to move between levels of the hierarchy[SEP]D
+The Nation of Islam group appealed to:<n>A.British-born second generation immigrants from the Asian subcontinent<n>B.White Americans who wanted to convert to Islam<n>C.African-Americans who felt excluded from the 'ethnic melting pot' in the USA<n>D.African-Caribbeans who lived in the inner cities and had a distinctive youth culture[SEP]C
+Comte's term 'positivism' refers to:<n>A.a theory that emphasizes the positive aspects of society<n>B.the precise, scientific study of observable phenomena<n>C.a theory that posits difficult questions and sets out to answer them<n>D.an unscientific set of laws about social progress[SEP]B
+Theories of racialized discourse suggest that:<n>A.race is an objective way of categorizing people on biological grounds<n>B.the idea of race is socially constructed through powerful ideologies<n>C.race relations in Britain and America can be traced back to colonial times<n>D.people choose their racial identity and this becomes fixed[SEP]B
+A major car accident occurs. One man stops his car and starts helping people. After seeing him stop, others also stop and start helping. Which of the following theories best explains the scenario?<n>A.Convergence<n>B.Emergent-norm<n>C.Contagion<n>D.Value-added[SEP]B
+A new highway extends from a major city though an area used for farmland. Which of the following is most likely to happen as a result?<n>A.Farmers will increase the acreage under production.<n>B.The city will evolve into a multiple nuclei model.<n>C.Suburbanization will develop because the time it takes to commute to the city has been decreased.<n>D.People from the countryside will move to the city, depopulating the farmland region.[SEP]C
+According to W. E. B. Dubois, progress for African Americans in the aftermath of slavery<n>A.depended on the small group of African Americans receiving the same thorough and extensive education as the most talented White Americans were able to access<n>B.involved their use of skills they already had from farming, domestic work, and labors of rural life rather than being forced to learn new skills in the late 1800s<n>C.required that they be trained and prepared as craftspeople and service employees so they could become immediately self-sufficient<n>D.required them to move to large cities where they would be accepted as equals in government, religion, and education[SEP]A
+Pluralist theories suggest that:<n>A.the state's power can be exercised through several different administrative structures<n>B.the ruling elite is composed of people from various class backgrounds<n>C.political parties must compete for the votes of 'consumers' in the electorate<n>D.there is a close alignment between class background and party preference[SEP]C
+The term 'over-urbanization' means that:<n>A.life in modern Western cities is so far removed from that of the Third World that we find it difficult to understand these societies<n>B.in poorer countries, the rapidly developing cities drain resources from the rural areas<n>C.the extent to which urbanization affects development has been exaggerated<n>D.governments are so preoccupied with urbanization in the West that they forget to attend to problems in the Third World[SEP]B
+The capitalist class of the mid-twentieth century were said to join the upper class because they:<n>A.participated in the same leisure pursuits and events of the 'social calendar'<n>B.emulated the lifestyle and cultural values of the traditional aristocracy<n>C.owned companies and financial assets that generated wealth through corporations<n>D.had direct, personal ownerships of land and businesses as physical assets[SEP]C
+The term inter-generational mobility refers to:<n>A.movement into a different occupational category over a person's lifetime<n>B.movement into different occupational categories between generations<n>C.movement into a higher occupational category<n>D.movement into an occupation that generates a lower income[SEP]B
+The term 'culture industry', used by members of the Frankfurt School, referred to:<n>A.the globalization of culture through new technologies<n>B.the way in which cultural products were bought and sold for profit<n>C.the development of subcultures and counter-cultures in society<n>D.the way in which industrialization had created new means of communication[SEP]B
+According to Hakim (1995, 1996), the majority of part-time work is done by women because:<n>A.part-time jobs pay relatively high wages and so are financially beneficial<n>B.they make a rational choice to combine employment with their 'home-centred' lives<n>C.their choices are constrained by structural factors, such as being unable to afford childcare<n>D.full time work is not available in the kinds of occupations that they want to enter[SEP]B
+A sect is organised around:<n>A.beliefs that can be challenged by members, a charismatic leader, and openness to new recruits<n>B.tolerance towards other religions and the separation of church and state<n>C.voluntary membership, democratic leadership, and high levels of emotional commitment<n>D.the idea of the secular world itself as being sacred[SEP]C
+What is the name of the process by which we acquire a sense of identity and become members of society?<n>A.rationalization<n>B.colonization<n>C.McDonaldization<n>D.socialization[SEP]D
+Pre-testing a questionnaire is useful for:<n>A.finding out which topics are important to the respondents<n>B.testing out your computer and printer<n>C.identifying any problems with the question wording and routing<n>D.deciding which respondents to leave out of the final sample[SEP]C
+Judith Butler (1999) suggested that:<n>A.sexual characteristics are the biological determinants of gender<n>B.heterosexuality and homosexuality are essential, opposing identities<n>C.the 'two-sex' model replaced the 'one-sex' model in the eighteenth century<n>D.gender is performed through bodily gestures and styles to create 'sex'[SEP]D
+Patterns of drug use in Britain reveal that:<n>A.it has increased and is no longer confined to a hedonistic youth subculture<n>B.the most commonly used recreational drug is Ecstasy<n>C.teenage girls are more likely to experiment with hard drugs than teenage boys<n>D.despite a series of moral panics, the use of illegal drugs is very rare[SEP]A
+Murray thought that the 'underclass' consisted of people who:<n>A.formed an inferior 'race' with low levels of intelligence<n>B.lived morally unsound lives of crime and squalor<n>C.were too reliant upon welfare benefits<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Religious organizations such as the Church of Norway, Islam, the Church of England, and the Church of Greece have which of the following characteristics in common?<n>A.They are cultures as well as churches.<n>B.They practice separation of church and state.<n>C.They exclude women as clergy.<n>D.They are monotheistic.[SEP]D
+A researcher mailed 1,000 questionnaires to members of a labor union and received 300 back. Most of those who returned the questionnaires indicated that they were dissatisfied with the union. Results based only on the returned questionnaires are most likely contaminated by<n>A.response rate bias<n>B.researcher bias<n>C.confusing correlation and causation<n>D.statistical regression[SEP]A
+Role-learning theory suggests that…<n>A.we internalise and take on social roles from a pre-existing framework<n>B.we create and negotiate our roles through interaction with others<n>C.social roles are not fixed or stable but fluid and pluralistic<n>D.roles have to be learned to suppress unconscious motivations[SEP]A
+Post-modernist writers have argued that:<n>A.we live in a world of superficial, fragmented images<n>B.no theory is better than any other: 'anything goes'<n>C.society has changed and we need new kinds of theory<n>D.all of the above[SEP]A
+Leroy visits his parents, who live in a primarily African American working-class neighborhood. During his visit, he notices that the community is changing. Several developments have been built to accommodate single-family homes, and upscale shopping centers have been added. While Leroy appreciates these changes, he is worried that his parents will not be able to afford to continue living in their neighborhood because property values are rising. Which of the following best explains what is happening to Leroy's old neighborhood?<n>A.Gentrification<n>B.Urbanization<n>C.White flight<n>D.The demographic transition[SEP]A
+Warner's study of the city of Natchez in the American Deep South showed that the 'colour line' there was:<n>A.no longer a powerful influence upon race relations<n>B.a way of marking out the land so that black people had less space for housing<n>C.a new policy that had been introduced to assimilate black and white groups<n>D.a sharp division between black and white castes, underpinned by beliefs about white superiority[SEP]D
+The social construction of childhood can be traced back to:<n>A.the introduction of compulsory education<n>B.increasingly emotional ties between parents and children<n>C.new consumer goods for children, such as clothes, toys and books<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+In Marx's theory, the 'mode of production' means:<n>A.the way in which products are made in a factory<n>B.the average measure of productivity under capitalism<n>C.the organization of a society's technical and human resources<n>D.an integral part of the superstructure of a society[SEP]C
+The trend of decarceration involves:<n>A.community alternatives to imprisonment and institutional care<n>B.the increased use of imprisonment as the main form of punishment<n>C.transferring the management of prisons to private companies<n>D.decentralized organization due to the mobility of capital[SEP]A
+The work of Smart suggested that:<n>A.the rates of violent crime were similar for men and women<n>B.women's sexual delinquency was more likely to be normalized than men's<n>C.women's criminal behaviour tended to reflect traditional gender roles<n>D.all of the above[SEP]C
+Allen's (2001) study of nurses showed that:<n>A.nurses perform a great deal of emotional labour for which they are not paid<n>B.the policies of Project 2000 had the effect of de-professionalising the career of nursing<n>C.more men were moving into nursing, which challenges some of the prevailing stereotypes about the occupation<n>D.the role of the nurse was ambiguous and had to be constantly redefined in the context of everyday interactions with other staff and patients[SEP]D
+Which of the following best describes the practice of placing the blame for the problems of a society on one particular group?<n>A.Ethnocentrism<n>B.Stereotyping<n>C.Scapegoating<n>D.Institutionalization[SEP]C
+Dahrendorf, Rex, and Habermas focused their attention on:<n>A.social solidarity and cohesion<n>B.the interpretive understanding of action<n>C.women's experiences and gendered knowledge<n>D.power, domination, and conflict[SEP]D
+Sreberny-Mohammadi (1996) argues that national cultures can resist American cultural domination of the media by:<n>A.domesticating its content, including more 'home-produced' programmes<n>B.controlling the distribution of imported products by banning satellite dishes<n>C.creating 'reverse flows' of their own programmes back to imperial societies<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Mulholland (1998) argued that privatization changed the relationship between companies and managers in that:<n>A.flexibility was reduced by the introduction of detailed daily worksheets<n>B.the state had greater control than managers over production processes<n>C.ownership was transferred from small shareholders to senior managers<n>D.employment depended on performance rather than trust and commitment[SEP]D
+Which of the following is consistent with results of current research conducted in the area of gender roles and the workplace?<n>A.In about a quarter of households with children, men stay home with the children so their wives can work.<n>B.Most women believe that there is equal opportunity today between men and women in career choice, advancement, and income.<n>C.Most men believe that women should be homemakers because men earn more money.<n>D.Most men married to working women do not share housework and childcare obligations equally with their working wives.[SEP]D
+Socialization is:<n>A.the formation of an attachment bond between an infant and its carer<n>B.a tendency of social theorists to explain everything in terms of social causes<n>C.the process of becoming part of a society by learning its norms and values<n>D.the historical process by which societies change from traditional to modern[SEP]C
+The term 'assets' refers to:<n>A.the culturally valued commodities and standards of living that make the poor feel relatively deprived<n>B.the flow of money a person receives from their salary or wage<n>C.a stock of economic resources, including land, shares and bank deposits<n>D.the 'slices' of the population who own differing amounts of wealth[SEP]C
+In the traditional hierarchy of status and precedence, which of these members of the upper class are in the right order (from highest to lowest status)?<n>A.Prime Minister, Archbishop of York, Viscounts of England<n>B.Marquesses of England, Earls of Great Britain, King's Brothers<n>C.Esquires, Serjeants of Law, Dukes' Eldest Sons<n>D.King's Grandsons, Lord High Treasurer, Companions of the Bath[SEP]D
+Social norms are:<n>A.creative activities such as gardening, cookery and craftwork<n>B.the symbolic representation of social groups in the mass media<n>C.religious beliefs about how the world ought to be<n>D.rules and expectations about interaction that regulate social life[SEP]D
+The 'nuclear family' means:<n>A.a group of people sharing living accommodation and meals<n>B.a network of relatives extended within or between generations<n>C.the new family created when an adult leaves home and gets married<n>D.a two generation unit of parents and their children[SEP]D
+The rise of new social movements indicates that:<n>A.people vote according to pragmatic issues and concerns<n>B.consumer identities are more important than class identities<n>C.personal, cultural and environmental issues can mobilise political consciousness just as much as economic interests<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Which of the following sociological perspectives views society as a system of interdependent and coordinated parts?<n>A.Functionalism<n>B.Conflict theory<n>C.Symbolic interactionism<n>D.Role theory[SEP]A
+Post-Fordist forms of media production and consumption involve:<n>A.the mass production of standardized products for passive audiences<n>B.television based on producer-broadcaster rather than publisher-broadcaster models<n>C.a diverse range of products aimed at niche markets<n>D.increasing numbers of advertisements for motoring and car-related products[SEP]C
+Marx said that the development of the labour movement through factory-based production would turn the working class into:<n>A.a class in itself<n>B.a class by itself<n>C.a class for itself<n>D.a ruling class[SEP]C
+In stage 3 of the 'health transition', the main causes of illness and death are:<n>A.acute, infectious diseases such as typhus, measles and cholera<n>B.respiratory diseases such as pneumonia and asthma<n>C.chronic, degenerative diseases, such as cancer, heart disease, and strokes<n>D.too diverse to put into one category[SEP]C
+Sociologists like Bordo (1993) have attributed the 'epidemic' of anorexia in Western cultures to:<n>A.a generally ascetic, frugal lifestyle that can be taken to extremes<n>B.traditional images of women as emotional, domesticated, and unassertive<n>C.the social construction of mental illness, through which 'normal' patterns of behaviour are pathologized<n>D.the new ideal of independent, self-assured femininity, combined with cultural values of achievement and control[SEP]D
+One of the difficulties in 'operationalizing' concepts like social class is that:<n>A.definitions and indicators can vary, making valid comparisons problematic<n>B.there are no reliable indicators of such widely contested ideas<n>C.it takes all the fun out of armchair theorising<n>D.it has little use for applied, empirical research about the topic[SEP]A
+In the 1990 reform of the National Health Service, hospitals became:<n>A.self-governing trusts competing for purchasing contracts from health authorities<n>B.state-controlled providers, dependent on funding from the central government<n>C.increasingly detached from health authorities and providers of private health care<n>D.less inclined to run themselves efficiently, as demand for health care was falling[SEP]A
+Law and order was privatized in the 1980s and 1990s through:<n>A.the expansion of private security companies<n>B.the building of private prisons<n>C.the introduction of market disciplines to measure police performance<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+The 'correspondence principle' (Bowles & Gintis) suggests that:<n>A.schools prepare children for work by teaching them to be obedient<n>B.teachers and parents tend to have similar attitudes to learning<n>C.children who write lots of letters develop a better grasp of language<n>D.boys' and girls' educational achievements have recently become similar[SEP]A
+Class segregation was apparent in mid-twentieth century Britain insofar as:<n>A.middle class owner-occupiers moved into the inner city through gentrification<n>B.working class communities formed in the inner cities, while the middle classes moved out to the suburbs<n>C.the middle classes lived in the countryside while the working class lived in the city<n>D.the upper and middle classes dominated public space, while working class people were more home-centred[SEP]B
+Charles Cooley's theory of the looking-glass self emphasizes<n>A.the manner in which young children come to a realization that they have a separate identity<n>B.the difficulty one experiences in seeing oneself as others do<n>C.how one's self-concept is based on one's perception of how others see one<n>D.how one's self-concept is heavily influenced by one's physical appearance[SEP]C
+Queer Theory makes the claim that:<n>A.heterosexuality is the normal and most desirable way to be<n>B.the sexual categories and discourses we use are based upon true, underlying biological differences<n>C.deviant forms of masculinity are seen as more threatening to the gender order than deviant forms of femininity<n>D.all sexualities are pluralistic, fragmented and frequently reconstructed[SEP]D
+Scott (1991) introduced the term 'power elite' to describe:<n>A.the ruling class, or bourgeoisie, who exploit the proletariat<n>B.a capitalist class dependent on property ownership and advantaged life chances<n>C.an alignment of classes with shared interests but no state power<n>D.a state elite whose members are drawn overwhelmingly from a power bloc[SEP]D
+A sociologist is conducting research on institutional power relations at a local hospital. The sociologist is on staff at the hospital for several weeks, recording data as field notes. This method of research is called<n>A.experimentation<n>B.secondary data analysis<n>C.participant observation<n>D.survey administration[SEP]C
+In Symbolic Interactionist theory, Mead defined the 'generalized other' as:<n>A.the group of structural theories of society that he was reacting against<n>B.the overall impression of ourselves that we try to give off to others<n>C.a significant figure in early childhood who teaches us the general values of society<n>D.an image of how people in the wider society might perceive our behaviour[SEP]D
+According to Davis (1995), women may seek cosmetic surgery because:<n>A.they have a deep-rooted sense of ineffectiveness and are striving for control<n>B.they are in pursuit of the 'perfect' body, fuelled by images of beauty<n>C.they perceive a part of their body as stigmatizing, in relation to a cultural ideal<n>D.their male partners pressurize them to look like supermodels[SEP]C
+Marx (1844) claimed that capitalism had alienated workers from:<n>A.the product they were making<n>B.the production process<n>C.each other and humanity in general<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Herberg's (1955) study of religion in America suggested that:<n>A.ethnic minorities practised religion to achieve social acceptance in the culture<n>B.mainstream faiths were becoming increasingly identified with national identity<n>C.the moral teachings of the main religions were becoming relatively similar<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Structural-Functionalists describe society as:<n>A.a complex network of interaction at a micro-level<n>B.a source of conflict, inequality, and alienation<n>C.an unstable structure of social relations<n>D.a normative framework of roles and institutions[SEP]D
+Booth's (1901) study revealed that the percentage of people in London who were living in poverty was:<n>A.30.70%<n>B.27.50%<n>C.18.60%<n>D.33.20%[SEP]A
+Traditional working class identity was based around:<n>A.shared working conditions in the manufacturing industry<n>B.the class consciousness of members of the proletariat<n>C.local communities, extended kinship networks and shared leisure pursuits<n>D.collective aspirations to move into the middle class[SEP]C
+Bernstein thought that using 'restricted codes' of language disadvantaged pupils at school because:<n>A.this pattern of speech made them the target of bullying<n>B.they referred to explicit, context independent meanings<n>C.they prevented children from communicating outside of their peer groups<n>D.they involved short, simple sentences with a small vocabulary[SEP]D
+Telework is a form of employment that involves:<n>A.running one's own business through telephone helplines or hotlines<n>B.working at home for an outside employer, using information technology<n>C.babysitting and other jobs within a local network, through the informal economy<n>D.combining non-manual work with the leisure activity of watching television[SEP]B
+Frank (1967) made the claim that 'underdeveloped' societies were:<n>A.insufficiently involved in the international capitalist economy<n>B.reluctant to surrender their traditional ways of life<n>C.economically dependent on the wealthy countries that exploited them<n>D.the 'metropoles' to which 'satellite' countries were attached[SEP]C
+The case of the former Soviet Union supports Kerr et al.'s (1960) claim that:<n>A.totalitarian regimes are incompatible with the requirements of advanced industrial technology<n>B.democratic governments serve the interests of a ruling elite<n>C.advanced industrial technology strengthens the power of totalitarian regimes<n>D.communist societies disperse power between various political parties[SEP]A
+The print revolution of the nineteenth century resulted in:<n>A.mass production, mass circulation, and the decline of serious content<n>B.the public ownership of newspapers as a shared resource<n>C.more people going to the cinema as a new leisure activity<n>D.a reduction of 'virtual communities' on the Internet[SEP]A
+The term 'feminist standpoint' suggests:<n>A.taking a stand on the issues neglected by feminism<n>B.studying society from the perspective of women<n>C.the recognition of difference and diversity in women's lives<n>D.a tendency to ignore the gendered nature of knowledge[SEP]B
+Ethnographic research produces qualitative data because:<n>A.the findings are amenable to statistical analysis<n>B.it is conducted over a period of several years<n>C.it uncovers rich, detailed accounts from an insider's perspective<n>D.it compares findings from a number of different cases[SEP]C
+Marx proclaimed that religion would disappear when:<n>A.a new trend of moral individualism became established<n>B.a socialist revolution removed the need for capitalist ideology<n>C.church attendance dropped below 15%<n>D.people came to believe more in science and technology[SEP]B
+Which of the following is not a feature of globalization?<n>A.an increasing awareness of the world as a whole<n>B.the extended power of nation states<n>C.the destruction of distance through communications technologies<n>D.the stretching of social relations beyond national boundaries[SEP]B
+Someone who gains a higher (or lower) social position than he or she was born into has experienced<n>A.absolute poverty<n>B.relative poverty<n>C.vertical mobility<n>D.horizontal mobility[SEP]C
+A survey should avoid asking:<n>A.fixed-choice questions<n>B.short questions<n>C.leading questions<n>D.funnelled questions[SEP]C
+The theory of development which suggests that societies move from traditional to modern, industrial forms of organization is called:<n>A.Westernization theory<n>B.Modernization theory<n>C.Industrialization theory<n>D.Dependency theory[SEP]B
+In modern societies, social status is typically measured by a person's:<n>A.age<n>B.income<n>C.verbal fluency<n>D.occupation[SEP]D
+Sociology differs from common sense in that:<n>A.it focuses on the researchers' own experiences<n>B.it makes little distinction between the way the world is and the way it ought to be<n>C.its knowledge is accumulated from many different research contexts<n>D.it is subjective and biased[SEP]C
+World-affirming religions:<n>A.embrace conventional cultural values but offer new means of achieving them<n>B.react against the loss of any meaningful religious content in the teachings of churches<n>C.adopt an attitude of mild disapproval towards mainstream social values<n>D.reject both the goals and means of conventional society and provide utopian alternatives[SEP]A
+The 'extension pattern' that Parker (1976) identified was said to be:<n>A.the lifestyle of clerical and unskilled manual workers, who saw leisure time as a chance to escape from alienating work<n>B.characteristic of professionals and skilled workers, whose work interests spilled over into leisure time<n>C.a neutral balance between work and leisure as neither connected nor oppositional, as evidenced by semi-skilled manual and clerical workers<n>D.the tendency of students to leave essay-writing until the last minute and then ask for an extended deadline[SEP]B
+Weber defined a 'class situation' as:<n>A.the exploitation of the working class by their capitalist employers<n>B.a social group's consciousness of their status and life chances<n>C.a person's position in the capital, product and labour markets, based on their economic resources<n>D.the lifestyle of a social class, as defined by patterns of consumption[SEP]C
+The introduction of market principles to educational policy in the 1980s resulted in:<n>A.more funding for students in higher education<n>B.the delegation of power and budgetary control to LEAs<n>C.a reduction in parental choice of school<n>D.increased state regulation through national testing and inspections[SEP]D
+Smith & Tomlinson argued that:<n>A.differences in ethnic background were more significant than class or gender in predicting educational achievement<n>B.racism in schools undermined the move towards equality of opportunity for children from ethnic minorites<n>C.school character far outweighed ethnic background in determining educational success<n>D.gender differences in educational achievement could be attributed to inequalities of class[SEP]C
+The 'post-industrial society' identified by Bell (1973) involved:<n>A.the increasing power of trade unions in resolving industrial disputes<n>B.a resurgence of interest in industrial production and manufacturing<n>C.a shift towards a service economy, based on knowledge and information<n>D.all of the above[SEP]C
+White-collar crime is low in visibility because:<n>A.it involves only small amounts of money<n>B.the proletariat can outsmart the bourgeoisie<n>C.the police turn a blind eye to corporate crime<n>D.it goes undetected in the context of everyday business transactions[SEP]D
+With industrial capitalism, leisure emerged as a concept that meant:<n>A.distinct periods of non-work and relaxation<n>B.regulated and organized activities to reduce social disorder<n>C.the growth of civic, municipal culture through public libraries, museums and art galleries<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+A moral panic occurs when:<n>A.the media exaggerate reports of deviant groups, generating hostile reactions<n>B.children watch violent or sexually explicit films and then copy the behaviour<n>C.audiences challenge the ethnic stereotypes represented by the media<n>D.elitists express concern with the Americanization of culture[SEP]A
+The 'demographic transition' is a social trend that involves:<n>A.a reduction in population size, caused by a higher rate of emigration than immigration<n>B.a change in the principal causes of death and disease since industrialization<n>C.increased birth and death rates, resulting in a relatively young population<n>D.a decline in the birth rate, greater life expectancy, and an ageing population[SEP]D
+'Snowballing' is an example of:<n>A.probability sampling<n>B.non-probability sampling<n>C.cluster sampling<n>D.using the Christmas vacation constructively[SEP]B
+The 'class polarization' that Marx predicted referred to:<n>A.the division of each social class into the more or less privileged<n>B.a growing gap between rich and poor, resulting in class consciousness<n>C.the growth of intermediate strata in the middle classes<n>D.the tendency for the working class to live in very cold places[SEP]B
+In the context of the labour movement in the nineteenth century, 'incorporation' meant:<n>A.including union representatives in processes of policy decision making<n>B.creating links between the state and corporate organizations<n>C.recruiting women into full time paid employment<n>D.including working class organizations in political bargaining and representation[SEP]D
+Millions of immigrant children who entered the United States learned English and the duties of citizenship while attending public schools in the communities in which they settled. This is an example of which of the following sociological concepts?<n>A.Acculturation<n>B.Collective behavior<n>C.Social stratification<n>D.Social mobility[SEP]A
+The capitalist world economy is what Wallerstein (1974) would call a 'world system'. This term refers to:<n>A.a means of transporting money between different areas of a country<n>B.an empire with a bureaucratic administration but no political centre<n>C.an awareness of risks and dangers that affect the environment as a whole<n>D.a unit with a division of labour that extends across ethnic and cultural groups[SEP]D
+According to Foucault, carceral organizations:<n>A.emphasised human relations and employee satisfaction<n>B.increased the amount of power held by managers<n>C.stripped inmates of their previous identities<n>D.isolated people and put them under surveillance[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not recognised as a level of society?<n>A.the household<n>B.the office<n>C.the global village<n>D.the nation state[SEP]B
+Ethnic identity refers to:<n>A.the objective categories of ethnicity used in the census<n>B.a felt sense of group membership on the basis of religion, language, or history<n>C.the imposition of a racial label on a minority by a powerful majority<n>D.the fragmented and pluralistic nature of ethnicity[SEP]B
+Marriage appears to be in decline because:<n>A.the proportion of people living alone has fallen to 29%<n>B.many people are cohabiting in long term relationships<n>C.the upward curve of remarriages compensates for the drop in first marriages<n>D.all of the above[SEP]B
+The market model of state welfare is based on the principle of:<n>A.individuals buying welfare privately, with some means-tested benefits<n>B.regular benefit payments to men as earners of the 'family wage'<n>C.a universalist system of welfare for all, regardless of income<n>D.decommodifying social welfare through state provision[SEP]A
+The term feminization of poverty refers to:<n>A.the critical deconstruction of 'poverty' by feminist theorists<n>B.women's increased chances of being in poverty, due to low pay and greater welfare dependency<n>C.the way in which managing a budget and avoiding poverty tends to be a woman's responsibility within the home<n>D.the disproportionate number of female sociologists who do research on poverty[SEP]B
+Which of the following is not identified as a new form of community?<n>A.ethnic communities, based on shared identity and experiences of discrimination<n>B.gay villages, which are formed in certain parts of large cities<n>C.sociological communities, formed by unpopular lecturers<n>D.virtual communities that exist only in cyberspace[SEP]C
+The use of 'indentured labour' in the nineteenth century involved:<n>A.people being transported to the British colonies and forced to work for one employer under poor conditions<n>B.the sale of African people through the slave trade in the 'Atlantic triangle'<n>C.selecting the most skilled workers in factories to promote their employer's company overseas<n>D.extracting the teeth of the laziest workers to stop them from talking[SEP]A
+Cultural restructuring has involved:<n>A.regenerating cities in economic decline<n>B.turning industrial landscapes into tourist attractions<n>C.selling sites and images through the 'symbolic economy' of media advertising<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Which of the following was not part of Weber's ideal type of bureaucracy?<n>A.impersonal rules<n>B.extensive paperwork<n>C.hierarchy of officials<n>D.Salaries[SEP]B
+Which of the following is the most important agent of socialization in early childhood?<n>A.A preschool provider<n>B.A peer group<n>C.The mass media<n>D.The family[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not a 'research purpose'?<n>A.triangulation<n>B.explanation<n>C.description<n>D.exploration[SEP]A
+'Scientific' theories in the nineteenth century tried to explain race in naturalistic terms. Which of the following ideas was not considered?<n>A.genetics<n>B.evolution<n>C.height<n>D.brain size[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not a regular national survey carried out by the British government?<n>A.Labour Force Survey<n>B.General Household Survey<n>C.Fashion Sensibility Survey<n>D.Family Expenditure Survey[SEP]C
+Which of the following industries did Blauner (1964) suggest was most alienating to its employees?<n>A.machine-based factory work<n>B.textile work as craft production<n>C.car manufacturing in assembly plants<n>D.chemical processing with automated practices[SEP]C
+The 'decentralized city' can be identified by:<n>A.the shift of employment and services away from the inner city towards multiple centres in smaller towns and rural areas<n>B.the degendering of public space as women use local facilities more<n>C.gentrification: the movement of middle class people back into the inner city<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Lombroso claimed that:<n>A.criminals were socialized into an 'underworld' of crime<n>B.no act is intrinsically deviant<n>C.biological failings drove some people into crime<n>D.women were less likely to be arrested than men[SEP]C
+Warner and Myrdal claimed that black former slaves were not joining the 'ethnic melting pot' of the North American cities because:<n>A.the white population did not believe in liberty, equality, and democracy<n>B.they wanted to retain a strong sense of their original ethnic identity<n>C.they were not prepared to leave the Southern states and move to North America<n>D.the promise of citizenship was contradicted by continued discrimination[SEP]D
+When Berger & Luckmann said that reality is socially constructed, they meant:<n>A.scientists are guided in their work by social values and interests, so they define and measure phenomena that will support their theories<n>B.people negotiate shared definitions of their situation and live according to these, often forgetting that these social worlds are not fixed and external<n>C.sociologists decide what constitutes social reality and measure only that<n>D.terms like 'reality' have no deeper meaning beyond the level of discourse[SEP]B
+Which of the following groups or organizations can be identified as having the characteristics of a bureaucracy?<n>A.An extended or consanguine family, including all the relatives by blood, marriage, or adoption<n>B.The government of a large city<n>C.A book club in which books are chosen by members who take turns alphabetically to lead discussion<n>D.The volunteers who gather annually to clean the neighborhood[SEP]B
+Pilcher (1999) identified soap operas as a 'feminine genre' of media because:<n>A.most of the characters in soap operas are women<n>B.they represent images of women as both domesticated and independent<n>C.they alienate women and appeal to an audience of men<n>D.female television producers are most likely to work in this area[SEP]B
+Which of these was not one of Townsend's (1979) indicators of relative deprivation?<n>A.lacking exclusive use of a bath or shower<n>B.living in housing with serious structural defects<n>C.buying fewer than twenty DVDs in the previous year<n>D.going without a week's holiday in the previous year[SEP]C
+Children who are still sucking their thumbs when they enter kindergarten are often subject to teasing and ridicule for this behavior. What type of social sanction is applied in this instance?<n>A.Formal positive sanction<n>B.Formal negative sanction<n>C.Informal positive sanction<n>D.Informal negative sanction[SEP]D
+The concept of political culture refers to the<n>A.way that cultural products, such as novels or paintings, reflect the political ideologies of their creators<n>B.basic beliefs and orientation toward politics that are shared widely by the members of a culture<n>C.political beliefs and attitudes shared by people in public offices<n>D.ideological biases of the mass media[SEP]B
+Walt Disney, Sony and Time Warner are examples of:<n>A.transnational corporations<n>B.multi-media empires<n>C.ownership concentrated within one medium<n>D.government-owned companies[SEP]A
+Equilibrium theories of social change emphasize<n>A.globalization<n>B.stability and the structure of society<n>C.secularism and mechanization<n>D.industrialization[SEP]B
+Which of the following best describes the definition of poverty used by the United States government?<n>A.It specifies the poverty line at a level set in the 1960s and adjusted since to reflect inflation.<n>B.It includes the value of government services, such as Medicaid or public housing, when setting the poverty line.<n>C.It is based on the concept of relative deprivation, and the poverty line changes as the distribution of income changes.<n>D.It is based on the concept of lifestyle, and the poverty line varies according to the needs of the individual.[SEP]A
+The 'absolute' poverty line is drawn to show:<n>A.the most extreme level of poverty that is found in a society<n>B.the estimated minimum level of income needed for subsistence<n>C.households that are poor, relative to the norms and values of their culture<n>D.the areas of a city in which poverty is concentrated[SEP]B
+'Eyeballing' is a technique that involves:<n>A.reading a textual document quickly to understand the gist of it<n>B.gathering a sample from whoever you can see in a public place<n>C.scanning a table to identify general patterns and significant figures<n>D.keeping your eyes on research participants at all times[SEP]C
+Which of the following was not a strategy used by the Conservative government of 1979 to reduce the power of the labour movement?<n>A.making all strike action illegal<n>B.imposing restrictions on picketing<n>C.banning political strikes that were not primarily concerned with the worker's own conditions of work<n>D.making secondary action (in support of workers elsewhere) illegal[SEP]A
+In the nineteenth century, homosexuality was understood as:<n>A.a positive identity in which gay people could take pride<n>B.an absolute taboo, which meant that all homosexuals were isolated<n>C.a subordinate form of masculinity that threatened 'compulsory heterosexuality'<n>D.confirmation of the two-sex model[SEP]C
+The population pyramid of a population that has had a slightly larger birth rate than death rate for several generations will most likely have which of the following shapes?<n>A.Wider at the top than in the middle<n>B.Wider at the bottom than at the top<n>C.Bulging in the middle<n>D.Having parallel sides[SEP]B
+The 'new racism' refers to:<n>A.a subtler form of prejudice, masked by nationalist pride<n>B.a post-modern deconstruction of racist ideas to reveal their lack of depth<n>C.racist practices found in newly emerging areas of social life, such as cyberspace<n>D.an anti-fascist movement which challenges nationalist politics[SEP]A
+Giselle graduated from college with high honors in management. She was recruited immediately following college by a large corporation and accepted a position in junior management. She quickly advanced to middle management. Ten years later Giselle was still in a middle-management position and had witnessed junior male colleagues promoted over her. Which of the following is a phenomenon that is most likely to explain Giselle's lack of promotion?<n>A.Glass ceiling<n>B.Gender constancy<n>C.Underemployment<n>D.Glass elevator[SEP]A
+The Mafia is an example of:<n>A.white collar crime<n>B.organized crime<n>C.non-criminal deviance<n>D.global terrorism[SEP]B
+Goldthorpe identified the 'service class' as:<n>A.those in non-manual occupations, exercising authority on behalf of the state<n>B.people working in consultancy firms who were recruited by big businesses<n>C.the young men and women employed in domestic service in the nineteenth century<n>D.those who had worked in the armed services[SEP]A
+Industrial production in the nineteenth century was characterized by:<n>A.increasing numbers of women in high status positions<n>B.cottage industries and homeworkers doing piecework in the domestic sphere<n>C.the 'managerial revolution' by which ownership and control became separate<n>D.power-driven machinery and the concentration of workers in large workplaces[SEP]D
+The term 'collective consumption' (Castells 1977) refers to:<n>A.the privatization of public services by the Conservative government<n>B.the lifestyle practice of shopping in peer groups<n>C.the form of tuberculosis suffered by those who collect stamps<n>D.the provision of health, housing, and education services by the state[SEP]D
+The deviant subculture of homosexuals who met in seventeenth and eighteenth century London was called the:<n>A.pollies<n>B.mollies<n>C.dollies<n>D.lollies[SEP]B
+Robert and Tanya are married and live with their three children. Their family unit is called<n>A.a family of orientation<n>B.a nuclear family<n>C.an extended family<n>D.a communal family[SEP]B
+In Durkheim's work, the term 'collective representations' refers to:<n>A.effervescent ceremonies that create a feeling of belonging<n>B.images of gods or totems that are widely recognized<n>C.shared ideas and moral values, often symbolized by an object or figurehead<n>D.ideological tools used to obscure class divisions[SEP]C
+Which of the following is not a characteristic of totalitarian societies?<n>A.indoctrination and propaganda<n>B.freedom of movement for citizens<n>C.one-party rule<n>D.a centrally planned economy[SEP]B
+Freud's notion of the 'ego' referred to:<n>A.the unconscious mass of instinctive drives that may be repressed<n>B.the self as a whole: an unstable mix of conscious and unconscious elements<n>C.the conscious part of the mind that regulates emotional drives on a practical, rational level<n>D.the neurotic part of the mind that longs for belonging and may suffer an inferiority complex[SEP]C
+Which of the following theories focuses on how society manages to carry out the activities necessary to maintain order and stability?<n>A.Functionalism<n>B.Interactionism<n>C.Rational-choice theory<n>D.Conflict theory[SEP]A
+Which of the following is a personal document with closed access?<n>A.government 'white paper'<n>B.confidential medical records<n>C.household account book<n>D.the shares register of a business[SEP]C
+The tripartite system used the 11+ exam to select pupils for:<n>A.popular schools that lay outside their catchment area<n>B.private, public and comprehensive schools<n>C.grammar, technical, and secondary modern schools<n>D.polytechnics, colleges and universities[SEP]C
+Durkheim defined social facts as:<n>A.ways of acting, thinking, and feeling that are collective and social in origin<n>B.the way scientists construct knowledge in a social context<n>C.data collected about social phenomena that are proven to be correct<n>D.ideas and theories that have no basis in the external, physical world[SEP]A
+The media-themes model of media influence claims that:<n>A.audiences selectively interpret what they want to hear<n>B.content analysis is the best way to identify the themes covered by the media<n>C.audiences passively absorb whatever messages they are given<n>D.social interaction reinforces the ideas and images that audiences select[SEP]D
+Bowlby's maternal deprivation thesis claimed that:<n>A.mothers who are living in poverty cannot afford to give their children the resources that other children enjoy<n>B.children deprived of an early, secure attachment to their mother are prone to suffer physically, intellectually and socially in later life<n>C.'mothering' is a socially constructed activity identified in the narratives of new mothers<n>D.deprivation is something children inherit, usually through their mother's side[SEP]B
+War became possible between nation states in the nineteenth century because:<n>A.the world was divided into several rival overseas empires<n>B.industrialization provided better transport, technology and administration<n>C.there was intense economic, political and military competition<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not identified by Fulcher & Scott as a criterion of community?<n>A.a shared sense of identity and belonging together<n>B.common activities involving all-round relationships<n>C.a fixed geographical location<n>D.collective action based on common interests[SEP]C
+The 'Great Migration' of 1916-1919 meant that Chicago became an ethnically diverse city. The consequence of this was:<n>A.assimilation: all racial boundaries were dissolved by the 'ethnic melting pot'<n>B.multiculturalism: all ethnic identities were celebrated equally<n>C.most ethnic groups were integrated into mainstream society, but the black population remained in the city's ghettos<n>D.racism: the white host population were hostile and prejudiced towards migrants[SEP]C
+According to Scott (1990), a document is 'authentic' if it:<n>A.is a sincere and accurate account, free from political bias<n>B.is representative of all the similar documents that did not survive<n>C.has both a literal and an interpretable meaning<n>D.is a 'sound' original, or reliable copy, of known authorship[SEP]D
+Which of the following is not a consequence of global tourism?<n>A.decreased rates of prostitution and sex tourism<n>B.developing countries can depend on it as a crucial source of income<n>C.the exploitation of cheap, unregulated labour in poor countries<n>D.we have become more aware of 'other' societies and ways of living[SEP]A
+Which of the following did Thatcher's government not strive to achieve:<n>A.marketization and privatization<n>B.individual freedom, choice and responsibility<n>C.generous financial benefits for single parents, students and the unemployed<n>D.the rolling back of the welfare state[SEP]C
+One of the ethical problems with covert participant observation is:<n>A.not being able to write comprehensive fieldnotes or record conversations<n>B.deceiving the respondents as to the reason for your presence<n>C.observing people outside of their natural setting<n>D.subjecting the participants to physical harm[SEP]B
+The embourgeoisement thesis suggests that:<n>A.capitalists are being replaced by salaried managers with bureaucratic authority<n>B.the affluent working class is adopting middle class values and ways of life<n>C.white collar occupations are being 'deskilled' by the introduction of new technologies into the workplace<n>D.the class structure has fragmented and there are no longer any distinct social classes[SEP]B
+Women have been excluded from the public sphere because:<n>A.industrial capitalism separated the middle class home from the workplace<n>B.those who enter paid employment have been 'sidelined' into particular fields<n>C.it is difficult to succeed in 'malestream' politics without compromising their femininity<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+Economic aid has largely failed to promote modernization in the developing countries because:<n>A.there are no clearly defined projects into which the money can be directed<n>B.the United Nations has refused to call on rich countries to provide it<n>C.debt repayments with interest can be greater than the amount of money received<n>D.debt repayments with interest can be greater than the amount of money received[SEP]C
+How is terrorism different from the types of crime described by the Chicago School?<n>A.it is committed on a larger, often global, scale, and is well organized<n>B.it is associated with political conflict between states and their citizens<n>C.it can have far-reaching effects upon international relations<n>D.all of the above[SEP]D
+The human relations approach emphasized the importance of:<n>A.scrutinizing employees as they interacted with customers<n>B.teamwork, communication and employee satisfaction<n>C.strict control and discipline to ensure high productivity<n>D.providing therapy and counselling in the workplace[SEP]B
+Which of the following did Domhoff not identify as a process of decision-making in the USA?<n>A.the ideology process<n>B.the exploitation process<n>C.the policy-formation process<n>D.the candidate-selection process[SEP]B

datasets/MMLU/us_foreign_policy.txt

+What is the structure of the United Nations Security Council?<n>A.5 permanent members with veto power, 10 rotating members with no veto power<n>B.5 permanent members and 10 rotating members, all with veto power<n>C.10 permanent members with veto power, and 5 rotating members without veto power<n>D.15 permanent members with veto power[SEP]A
+What was the significance of the Gulf of Tonkin resolution?<n>A.It allowed the US to intensify its involvement in Vietnam<n>B.It illustrated the influence of public opinion on US foreign policy<n>C.It enhanced Congressional control over the Vietnam War<n>D.It curtailed US involvement in Vietnam[SEP]A
+Which is not a nonstate actor that poses a threat to the United States?<n>A.Terrorists<n>B.Organized crime<n>C.Drug traffickers<n>D.China[SEP]D
+Who was the first American president to visit communist China?<n>A.Richard Nixon<n>B.George H. W. Bush<n>C.Jimmy Carter<n>D.Ronald Reagan[SEP]A
+The Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty was the first accord<n>A.on nuclear weapons signed between the United States and the Soviet Union.<n>B.cutting conventional arms in Europe.<n>C.to be rejected by the U.S. Senate.<n>D.mandating the elimination of many long-range nuclear missiles.[SEP]D
+What were the implications of the Cold War for American exceptionalism?<n>A.It ended the influence of American exceptionalism entirely<n>B.Exceptionalism was enhanced by America's status as the 'leader of the free world'<n>C.The extension of American power globally challenged core assumptions of exceptionalism<n>D.Both b and c[SEP]D
+Why did Franklin D. Roosevelt initially favour an 'isolationist' stance on the part of the US during the 1930s?<n>A.He believed that internal reform rather than international negotiation was the key to economic regeneration of the US<n>B.He believed that German domination of Europe would be in US interests<n>C.He always favoured isolationism<n>D.All of the above[SEP]A
+What was the 'New Populism'?<n>A.A strand of neo-isolationist sentiment<n>B.A strand of internationalist sentiment<n>C.An expression of American cultural superiority<n>D.Increased incorporation of public opinion in foreign policy making[SEP]A
+How did World War I shift economic power from Europe to the United States?<n>A.The war reduced European population levels below that of the United States<n>B.The United States seized German resources after the war<n>C.European countries paid the United States for assistance<n>D.The United States became a creditor country and financial centre, with European war spending boosting the US economy[SEP]D
+In American government, the power to declare war rests with<n>A.the president of the United States.<n>B.the secretary of defense.<n>C.the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.<n>D.Congress.[SEP]D
+How did the Cold War context shape US perceptions of the Third World?<n>A.The US ignored the Third World<n>B.Local developments were viewed through a geopolitical lens<n>C.The US unreservedly supported decolonization<n>D.None of the above[SEP]B
+What was unique about the NATO intervention in Kosovo?<n>A.It was the first time the US became involved in the Balkans<n>B.It was the first time NATO used military force<n>C.It was the first war won by airpower alone<n>D.It was the first war to employ 'smart weapons'[SEP]C
+What, according to Systemic theories, is the primary determinant of a state's foreign policy?<n>A.The character of a state's leader<n>B.The distribution of power in the international system<n>C.The distribution of power within a state's governmental system<n>D.A state's political ideology[SEP]B
+Why is there so much uncertainty over which states have nuclear weapons?<n>A.Leaders have incentives to lie<n>B.If leaders revealed their programs, they would be more likely to be attacked<n>C.Leaders will not always grant foreign monitors access to their nuclear programs<n>D.ALL of the above[SEP]D
+Within American politics, the power to accord official recognition to other countries belongs to<n>A.the Senate.<n>B.the president.<n>C.the Secretary of State.<n>D.the chairman of the Joint Chiefs.[SEP]B
+What did the Moscow Treaty on Strategic Offensive Reductions do?<n>A.Required the United States and Russia to demobilize their armies<n>B.Required the United States and Russia to dismantle a significant number of their nuclear weapons<n>C.Prohibited the acquisition of new military bases<n>D.Prohibited short-range nuclear weapons[SEP]B
+What were the 'open-door notes'?<n>A.An American declaration that the US was always open to Chinese immigration<n>B.An American proclamation that China should be divided up between the US, Japan and the European empires<n>C.An American proclamation that China should be open to US trade and missionaries<n>D.An American declaration of support for Chinese economic protectionism[SEP]C
+International trade will almost always benefit both countries, so why do countries try to protect their own firms from exposure to the world market?<n>A.Irrationality on the part of the leadership<n>B.Costs of free trade are concentrated, but benefits are dispersed<n>C.Regime type<n>D.International conflict prevents trade[SEP]B
+Why did George H.W. Bush allow Saddam Hussein to remain in power after the Gulf War of 1991?<n>A.Lack of US firepower<n>B.Concern over oil supplies<n>C.Limited UN mandate and fear of a protracted conflict<n>D.Difficult terrain and fear of civilian casualties[SEP]C
+Why do Liberal Internationalists argue that international institutions are important to US grand strategy?<n>A.They allow the US to withdraw from the international arena<n>B.They serve American interests<n>C.The US is incapable of acting alone<n>D.None of the above[SEP]B
+What was the significance of the Truman Doctrine?<n>A.It indicated the special place of Greece and Turkey in American interests<n>B.It was Truman's first statement on European affairs<n>C.It indicated US reluctance to get involved in incidents outside of its immediate sphere of influence<n>D.It indicated that the US would now view all local revolts through a geopolitical lens[SEP]D
+What tend to be the effects of oil and other natural resource trade on developing states?<n>A.It democratizes countries<n>B.It has no real effect<n>C.It encourages stability of the regime<n>D.It changes the nature of the investor[SEP]C
+The dominant course for foreign policy throughout most of American history can be categorized as<n>A.containment.<n>B.neoconservatism.<n>C.isolationism.<n>D.protectionism.[SEP]C
+What led Britain to impose new taxes on their American colonies?<n>A.To increase the wealth of King George III<n>B.The growing costs of war with France<n>C.Anger at America's growing prosperity<n>D.Pressure from rich merchants[SEP]B
+Who said "Globalization is not something we can hold off or turn off. It is the economic equivalent of a force of nature-like wind or water"?<n>A.Ronald Reagan<n>B.George Soros<n>C.Bill Clinton<n>D.George W. Bush[SEP]C
+The idea that war is "the continuation of politics by other means" helps to capture<n>A.diplomacy is the quietest instrument of influence in global politics.<n>B.the way political parties fight with each other.<n>C.the idea that governments use their military to help pursue policy goals.<n>D.the way Democrats and Republicans differ over the war in Iraq.[SEP]C
+What are the key elements of the Liberal approach to US foreign policy?<n>A.Promotion of Democracy, free-trade and international institutions<n>B.Alliances, diplomacy and protectionism<n>C.The balance of power, self-sufficiency and prudence<n>D.None of the above[SEP]A
+What was the key difference between US expansion pre- and post- 1865?<n>A.US expansion was based on territory rather than markets post-1865<n>B.US expansion was based on markets rather than territory post-1865<n>C.US expansion was limited to Latin America post-1865<n>D.US expansion ended after 1865[SEP]B
+What case did President Eisenhower make against the 'military-industrial complex' in his farewell speech?<n>A.That the capitalist search for profits was the leading cause of armed conflict<n>B.That the United States no longer needed to be militarily strong<n>C.That military spending gave the arms industry unwarranted influence on politics and government<n>D.That private companies would undermine the role of the Armed Forces[SEP]C
+Within the United Nations, real power is located in<n>A.the Security Council.<n>B.the Chamber of Deputies.<n>C.the Council of Ministers.<n>D.the Secretariat.[SEP]A
+In general, how do conservatives and liberals differ when it comes to defense spending?<n>A.Conservatives are skeptical of increases in defense spending; liberals advocate increases in defense spending.<n>B.Conservatives favor social spending over defense spending; liberals favor defense spending over social spending.<n>C.Conservatives advocate increases in defense spending; liberals are generally skeptical of increases in defense spending.<n>D.Conservatives emphasize strong economies; liberals emphasize strong military readiness.[SEP]C
+Intergovernmental organizations SELDOM do which of the following?<n>A.Provide strong enforcement<n>B.Monitor parties<n>C.Provide fora for discussion<n>D.Reduce transaction costs for agreements[SEP]A
+Which of the following are possible constraints on US foreign policy decision making?<n>A.Foreign policies of other states<n>B.International law<n>C.Intergovernmental organizations<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What is direct diplomacy?<n>A.Members of Congress negotiating directly with foreign governments<n>B.Face-to-face meetings between state leaders<n>C.The president consulting Congress on foreign policy issues<n>D.Bilateral talks that do not involve a third-party negotiator[SEP]A
+What was the Clinton Administration's policy on the Russian economy?<n>A.The US inhibited the marketization of the Russian economy<n>B.The US promoted the marketization of the Russian economy<n>C.The US supported public ownership of natural resources<n>D.None, the US was only concerned with security issues[SEP]B
+How many major powers are there in a multipolar system?<n>A.0<n>B.1<n>C.2<n>D.3 or more[SEP]D
+Why did Americans believe that they could found a different kind of empire after 1776?<n>A.This would be an 'empire of liberty'<n>B.This empire would be multi-cultural<n>C.This type of empire would be based on expansion<n>D.This would be empire free of slavery[SEP]A
+The trade-off between defense and social spending is often referred to as a choice between<n>A.bread and butter.<n>B.war and peace.<n>C.guns and butter.<n>D.bombs and books.[SEP]C
+What did Charles Krauthammer mean by a 'unipolar moment' when describing the post-Cold War system?<n>A.The chance for the United States to share power with other countries in the world<n>B.An opportunity to use to collapse of the Soviet Union to extend US power<n>C.An international system that didn't face any threats<n>D.The never-ending domination of the United States[SEP]B
+Which of the following considers it immoral to use force abroad to do good things (such human rights protection, democracy, etc)?<n>A.Realism<n>B.Idealism<n>C.Liberalism<n>D.None of the above[SEP]A
+According to realists, what is the fundamental difference between the international system and the domestic system?<n>A.Armed conflict<n>B.Anarchy<n>C.Institutions<n>D.No common language[SEP]B
+Which is NOT a reason for why intergovernmental organizations are ineffective at promoting human rights?<n>A.These organizations merely identify those states who already support human rights<n>B.They cannot get enough information about which leaders will abuse their citizens<n>C.These organizations have little ability to constrain abusive leaders<n>D.None of the above[SEP]B
+Why might the 'Philadelphian System' be linked to the idea of American exceptionalism?<n>A.It encouraged greater involvement in European politics<n>B.It was designed as the antithesis of European politics<n>C.It created a large standing army<n>D.It encouraged the centralization of political power in the US[SEP]B
+Which of the following are possible constraints on US foreign policy decision making?<n>A.Foreign policies of other states<n>B.International law<n>C.Intergovernmental organizations<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Détente, or the relaxing of tensions coupled with firm guarantees of mutual security, represented a shift in American foreign policy toward the communist world ushered in by<n>A.Richard Nixon.<n>B.Eugene McCarthy<n>C.Lyndon Johnson.<n>D.Robert Kennedy.[SEP]A
+Which of these is not a component of the 'American Creed'?<n>A.Liberty<n>B.Equality<n>C.Autocracy<n>D.Individualism[SEP]C
+During the early years of his administration, Reagan's foreign and defense policies emphasized<n>A.nuclear disarmament.<n>B.détente.<n>C.anticommunism.<n>D.international free trade.[SEP]C
+The Vietnam War can be understood as<n>A.a war that deeply divided the United States and fostered cynicism toward the American government.<n>B.an example of the doctrine of containment, because U.S. involvement was designed to prevent the fall of South Vietnam to the communists.<n>C.an example of how even a great power may not be able to prevail against a determined enemy unless there is a clear objective and the national will to do so.<n>D.All of the above are true.[SEP]D
+The departments of the executive branch that assist the president in designing and carrying out U.S. foreign policy are known as<n>A.the United Nations.<n>B.the National Security Council.<n>C.the State Department.<n>D.the National Security Agency.[SEP]C
+The largest increase in peacetime defense spending in American history occurred under which president?<n>A.Jimmy Carter<n>B.Ronald Reagan<n>C.Bill Clinton<n>D.Dwight Eisenhower[SEP]B
+What caused a public uproar involving the National Security Agency in 2005?<n>A.Revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants<n>B.A leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001, with the Democratic National Committee<n>C.Revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba<n>D.A scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for "building a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundation"[SEP]A
+What was the Marshall Plan?<n>A.A plan that provided economic assistance to rebuild Europe.<n>B.A plan to provide aid to Greece and Turkey in their stand against Soviet and Soviet-assisted threats<n>C.A plan that provided Europe with military assistance to counter the Soviet threat<n>D.The plan designed to stop communism in Asia[SEP]A
+Bureaucratic politics suggests we should be worried about which of the following with regard to nuclear weapons?<n>A.Having the capability to deter the most powerful rival<n>B.Having the capability to deter smaller states<n>C.How nuclear attacks are identified and responded to; who controls the weapons<n>D.Bureaucratic politics provides no information about nuclear proliferation and use[SEP]C
+According to International Institutionalists, what problems have international institutions been designed to address?<n>A.War<n>B.Anarchy<n>C.Collective action and coordination problems<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What was meant by the term 'New World Order'?<n>A.A new democratic internationalism led by the United States<n>B.A new balance of power between the US and China<n>C.A new global economic framework<n>D.A new era of globalization[SEP]A
+The best known and perhaps most important international organization is<n>A.the United Nations.<n>B.the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).<n>C.the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).<n>D.the World Trade Organization (WTO).[SEP]A
+What was meant by the term 'American multiplication table'?<n>A.Increase in the US population<n>B.Increase in US finances<n>C.Increase in US military capability<n>D.Increase in US international influence[SEP]A
+Global and regional international trade agreements work by using which of the following mechanisms?<n>A.Reciprocity across multiple issues<n>B.Reputational concerns of the actors<n>C.Side payments for adjusting to the organization (such as the Common Agricultural Policy in the EU)<n>D.ALL of the above[SEP]D
+Why did Lincoln oppose the southward expansion of the US?<n>A.It would have drained the US economically<n>B.It would have involved compromising opposition to slavery<n>C.It would have increased immigration to the US<n>D.None of the above[SEP]B
+Growing tension between the United States and the Soviet Union resulted in a policy that John Foster Dulles referred to as<n>A."mutual assured destruction."<n>B."brinkmanship."<n>C."realism."<n>D."not in my backyard."[SEP]B
+Why do some scholars claim that Reagan 'won the Cold War'?<n>A.Reagan's first term military spending pressured the Soviet Union to keep up its international commitments<n>B.Reagan encouraged engagement with the Soviet Union<n>C.Reagan encouraged a softer approach towards communism<n>D.Reagan reduced military spending and this allowed the Soviet Union space to reform[SEP]A
+What is the implication of American exceptionalism in terms of global economics?<n>A.It encourages the use of tariffs<n>B.It encourages nationalization<n>C.It encourages liberalization of global trade<n>D.It encourages redistribution of wealth[SEP]C
+What were the primary institutions of the liberal international economic order?<n>I. GATT<n>II. IMF<n>III. World Bank<n>IV. NATO<n>A.IV only<n>B.II and III<n>C.I, II, and III<n>D.I, II, III, and IV[SEP]C
+According to Rosenau, which factor is important to consider in explaining the foreign policy behavior of the United States?<n>A.The external environment of the international system<n>B.Domestic environment, government and bureaucracy<n>C.The President's individual personality.<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+How many states in the international system are likely to have nuclear weapons right now?<n>A.Fewer than 7<n>B.Between 8 and 15<n>C.Between 16 and 25<n>D.More than 25[SEP]B
+Why is NSC 68 seen as a turning point in US Cold War Foreign policy?<n>A.It indicated the primacy of economic containment<n>B.It indicated a desire to engage with the Soviet Union<n>C.It indicated a shift towards military containment<n>D.It dispensed with the idea of containment[SEP]C
+What was meant by the term 'Rogue States'?<n>A.States aligned with the USSR during the Cold War<n>B.States outside of the 'family of nations'<n>C.Communist States<n>D.The former Soviet states[SEP]B
+The foreign policy doctrine that European nations should stay out of Latin America is known as<n>A.the Powell Doctrine.<n>B.the Roosevelt Doctrine.<n>C.the Bush Doctrine.<n>D.the Monroe Doctrine.[SEP]D
+Why do contemporary European liberal democrats tend to object to the influence of exceptionalism on American foreign policy?<n>A.They see it as a challenge to European global influence<n>B.They see it as an ideological façade for US imperialism<n>C.They see it as a temporary phenomenon<n>D.None of the above[SEP]B
+In what sense might exceptionalism link isolationist and internationalist strategies?<n>A.Both encourage world government<n>B.Both focus on the decline of the American power<n>C.It doesn't - the two are fundamentally opposed<n>D.Both can be viewed as different means of achieving the same liberal ends[SEP]D
+Why do realists tend to object to the influence of exceptionalism on American foreign policy?<n>A.It leads to a diminished focus on collective security<n>B.It diminishes the prospects for world government<n>C.It enhances the prospects for world government<n>D.It leads to a diminished focus on security, power and interest[SEP]D
+What features distinguish Socio-Economic accounts of US Cold War foreign policy?<n>A.A focus on class and economic interests<n>B.A focus on liberal ideology<n>C.A focus on language and culture<n>D.All of the above[SEP]A
+What did Paul Kennedy argue in his book The Rise and Fall of the Great Powers?<n>A.All of the world's leading economies were declining due to low growth and inflation<n>B.The United States could no longer remain a superpower and was in decline<n>C.The soft power of the United States would allow it to avoid decline<n>D.The rise of Japan had been exaggerated[SEP]B
+The Joint Chiefs of Staff is made up of<n>A.the critical domestic and foreign policy advisers to the president.<n>B.foreign policy advisers who meet with the president daily.<n>C.the commanding officers of each branch of the armed services, along with a chairperson and vice chairperson.<n>D.the highest-ranking generals in the U.S. Army.[SEP]C
+What is American exceptionalism?<n>A.The belief that the United States is different from other major powers because it is concerned not only with Power, but also with Principles.<n>B.The belief that the United States is different because it is the most powerful nation in the world.<n>C.The belief that the United States is pacifist.<n>D.The belief that the United States is different because it is motivated more by economic factors than other countries are.[SEP]A
+The role of gathering and interpreting intelligence about foreign countries in order to allow policymakers to make good foreign policy decisions was given to<n>A.the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).<n>B.the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).<n>C.the National Security Council.<n>D.Both A and B are correct.[SEP]A
+The cooperative international organization of 185 countries designed to stabilize the exchange of currencies and the world economy is<n>A.the World Bank.<n>B.the United Nations.<n>C.UNICEF.<n>D.the International Monetary Fund.[SEP]D
+What policies are part of a grand strategy of Offshore Balancing?<n>A.Maintaining a balance between the United States and other countries and not entering into alliances<n>B.Investing equally in domestic and international security with balanced protection against terrorism and other states<n>C.Embrace multi-polarity, show greater restraint internationally and require other states to meet their own security burdens.<n>D.Isolate the US from the international system and not seek global power[SEP]C
+What was the Marshall plan?<n>A.A plan designed to aid the economy recovery of Europe<n>B.An attempt to diminish the potential attraction of the Soviet system to Europeans<n>C.An aid programme that embedded US influence in Europe<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What accounted for the US avoidance of catastrophe at the hands of the British in 1814?<n>A.Naval victories<n>B.Diplomacy<n>C.British preoccupation with Europe<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What was a main organizational change proposed by the 9/11 Commission with regard to the U.S. intelligence community?<n>A.Creation of the Department of Homeland Security<n>B.Moving the Department of Defense Intelligence Agencies to the CIA for better coordination<n>C.Creation of the National Intelligence Director<n>D.Moving the domestic intelligence component of the FBI to the CIA[SEP]C
+The government body formed to coordinate American foreign and military policy is known as<n>A.the National Security Council.<n>B.the Pentagon.<n>C.the Defense Policy Institute.<n>D.the Joint Chiefs of Staff.[SEP]A
+What drives US foreign policy according to the Marxist perspective?<n>A.Economic protectionism<n>B.Class consciousness<n>C.The search for new markets<n>D.Superstructure[SEP]C
+Why might American exceptionalism lead to opposition to world government?<n>A.Its general anti-statism opposes centralized government<n>B.It views world government as impractical<n>C.It views the UN as a sufficient form of global governance<n>D.None of the above[SEP]A
+Which of the following considers states to be the primary actors in international relations?<n>A.Realism<n>B.Idealism<n>C.Liberalism<n>D.None of the above[SEP]A
+The importance of oil in shaping U.S. foreign policy helps to highlight<n>A.the importance of military superiority.<n>B.how the importance of oil is often overexaggerated.<n>C.the increasing importance of economic instruments of foreign policy.<n>D.the need to drill for domestic sources.[SEP]C
+The president's principal civilian adviser on the military is the<n>A.national security adviser.<n>B.director of the CIA.<n>C.secretary of defense.<n>D.secretary of state.[SEP]C
+How do Ideational approaches to US foreign policy during the Cold War differ from Realist accounts of the same period?<n>A.They place greater emphasis on economic factors<n>B.They place greater emphasis on material interests and power<n>C.They place greater emphasis on ideology and beliefs<n>D.They place greater emphasis on geopolitics[SEP]C
+How did the relationship between President and Congress develop under George H.W. Bush and Bill Clinton?<n>A.Congress asserted its primacy in foreign policy<n>B.US foreign policy became substantially decentralized<n>C.The Presidency welcomed the influence of Congress<n>D.None of the above[SEP]D
+Which of the following points supports the argument for American unilateralism?<n>A.Benevolent hegemony<n>B.Ineffectiveness of multilateralism<n>C.American power<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Historically, what has been the general pattern of defense spending in the United States?<n>A.Steady increases over time.<n>B.Increased spending during wars, with demobilization bringing spending down but not back to prewar levels<n>C.Unpredictable fluctuations.<n>D.Increased spending during wars, with further increases after the war to prepare for future engagements.[SEP]B
+International development may be tied to the security of the state, why?<n>A.Threats to the state centralize political and economic power, threatening state development<n>B.Too many casualties drain the productive power of the state<n>C.Threats to the state encourage socialism<n>D.The two are correlated, but there is no causal effect[SEP]A
+What was the 'Domino Theory'?<n>A.The idea that the Cold War operated according to the principles of game theory<n>B.The idea that certain states were of higher value than others to the US during the Cold War<n>C.The idea that the fall of one state to communism would inexorably lead to the fall of its neighbors<n>D.The idea that the growth of democracy in one state would inexorably lead to its growth in others[SEP]C
+What has been an effective way of disbursing US foreign aid to encourage change in target states?<n>A.Conditional programs, such as the Millennium Challenge, that require change before receipt of aid<n>B.the use of intergovernmental organizations to monitor aid disbursement<n>C.withdrawal of aid for bad policies<n>D.None of the above, international aid never works[SEP]A
+What was established at Bretton Woods in 1994 to stabilize the global economy?<n>A.The International Monetary Fund (IMF)<n>B.The US Dollar as the world's reserve currency<n>C.The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Which of the following is NOT a good predictor of which states will get nuclear weapons?<n>A.Receipt of sensitive nuclear assistance<n>B.Wealth/GDP<n>C.Rivalry with a nuclear state<n>D.Regime type[SEP]D
+What was 'democratic enlargement'?<n>A.A proposal for reform of the US system of government<n>B.A proposal for the extension of democratic rule globally<n>C.A proposal for the extension of free markets<n>D.Both b and c[SEP]D
+What is meant by the phrase 'empire by invitation'?<n>A.Voluntary reliance on an external power for security<n>B.Willful openness to colonization<n>C.Cultural imperialism<n>D.Open advocacy of imperialism for economic gain[SEP]A
+In what way did the George W Bush administration change the direction of US foreign policy?<n>A.It criticized international organizations, rather than trying to strengthen them<n>B.It expanded NATO to include former Soviet states<n>C.It focused on a more personal style of leadership<n>D.It increased international support for the United States[SEP]A
+Peace, commerce, and honest friendship with all nations, entangling alliances with none'. Identify the speaker.<n>A.James Madison<n>B.Abraham Lincoln<n>C.Woodrow Wilson<n>D.Thomas Jefferson[SEP]D

datasets/MMLU/virology.txt

+How many human polyomaviruses are known at present?<n>A.100<n>B.1<n>C.10<n>D.unknown[SEP]A
+AIDS activism in the U.S. resulted in:<n>A.Food and Drug Administration reforms<n>B.Easier access to investigational drugs<n>C.Changes in the way medicine was practiced in the U.S.<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Globally, the most deaths are caused by:<n>A.Respiratory infections<n>B.Diarrheal diseases<n>C.Malaria<n>D.Tuberculosis[SEP]B
+What happens during the 'incubation period'?<n>A.The virus is cleared from the body by the immune system<n>B.Virus replication happens at an intracellular level<n>C.This period commonly lasts for a few days<n>D.This period commonly lasts for a few hours[SEP]B
+Newborn infants in countries with limited access to safe water and low levels of education should be:<n>A.Exclusively formula fed for six months<n>B.Exclusively breast fed for six months<n>C.Should receive both breast milk and other foods as tolerated in the first 6<n>D.months[SEP]B
+Achieving effective change in a community is usually dependent on which of the following segments of society?<n>A.Innovators<n>B.Early adapters<n>C.Middle adapters<n>D.Late adapters[SEP]A
+“Contingency management” is”:<n>A.A strategy of last resort for reducing high-risk behaviors<n>B.Paying drug users for negative urine specimens<n>C.Paying sex workers to use condoms<n>D.Paying drug users to use condoms[SEP]B
+Typical clinical symptoms following infection with astroviruses include which of the following?<n>A.Acute pneumonia<n>B.Gastroenteritis in children<n>C.Hepatitis<n>D.rashes[SEP]B
+Which of the following is the most special characteristic of the adaptive immune system?<n>A.Antibodies<n>B.T cells<n>C.Memory T cells<n>D.Clonal expansion of pre-existing antibodies and/or T cells[SEP]D
+Chemotherapy is now an option for clinical care of patients. Typical drug regimens now include which of the following?<n>A.Interferon and ribavirin<n>B.Lamivudine and ribavirin<n>C.Combinations of adefovir and entecavir and/or tenofovir (DAA)<n>D.Interferons alone[SEP]B
+There were no new cases of Ebola virus in the United States from January 1, 1997 through January 1, 1998. Which of the following epidemiologic terms does this statement describe?<n>A.Incidence<n>B.Lifetime expectancy<n>C.Lifetime prevalence<n>D.Period prevalence[SEP]C
+How were retroviruses discovered?<n>A.In chickens as Rous sarcoma<n>B.In humans as HTLV-1<n>C.In mice causing leukaemia<n>D.In cats causing leukaemia[SEP]C
+Most surveillance systems use which of the following study designs?<n>A.Cohort<n>B.Serial cross-sectional<n>C.Mortality<n>D.Syndromic[SEP]B
+Polio can be eradicated by which of the following?<n>A.Attention to sewage control and hygiene<n>B.Killed polio vaccine<n>C.Live polio vaccine<n>D.Combination of the killed and live vaccines.[SEP]A
+Public health ethics is:<n>A.Patient-centered<n>B.Population-centered<n>C.Subject-centered<n>D.Must respect the rights of individuals[SEP]B
+How many people globally are currently infected with hepatitis B?<n>A.350 million<n>B.2 billion<n>C.100,000<n>D.1 million[SEP]A
+In a study, a group of people are exposed to an environmental toxin but are not treated observed over time on a standard set of measures to ascertain the potential effects of the toxin. This type of study design is called<n>A.Clinical trial<n>B.Double-blind<n>C.Longitudinal<n>D.Prospective cohort[SEP]D
+Which disease do polyomaviruses predominantly cause?<n>A.Tumours<n>B.Brain pathology<n>C.No disease at all<n>D.Kidney infections[SEP]C
+How are antibody producing cells stimulated?<n>A.Interacting with a virus short peptide<n>B.Interacting with a T helper cell.<n>C.Interacting with a plasma cell<n>D.Interacting with a virus infected cell[SEP]B
+The single most important key to the success of the Multicenter AIDS Cohort (MACS) is:<n>A.The brilliance of the principal investigator<n>B.The commitment of the staff<n>C.The commitment of the participants<n>D.The quality of the laboratories[SEP]C
+Picornavirus replication as a positive strand RNA virus is particularly typified by which of the following?<n>A.Virions carry RNA transcriptase enzyme into the cell<n>B.The virion RNA is translated into a single large polyprotein<n>C.The virion RNA acting as mRNA<n>D.The virus exits by apoptosis of the cell[SEP]C
+Why are members of the astrovirus family only recently recognised as significant enteric viruses for humans?<n>A.The genome has been identified by the new method of deep sequencing<n>B.A new vector has been discovered<n>C.They infect a wide range of domestic animals and so contaminate meat<n>D.Knowledge of their replication as positive sense ssRNA viruses is now complete[SEP]A
+Which virus infection was not first identified by clinical observation?<n>A.HIV<n>B.Rubella teratogenicity<n>C.Microcephaly and Zika<n>D.Hepatitis C[SEP]D
+The particular quality of the U.S. health care system is its:<n>A.Systematic, democratic approach<n>B.Fragmented, uncoordinated approach<n>C.The result of rationale decisions by informed legislators<n>D.a. and c. above[SEP]B
+The three key intervention strategies according to Professor Shoptaw are:<n>A.Behavioral intervention, treatment and structural interventions<n>B.Condoms, drug therapy and regulation of commercial sex establishments<n>C.Drug replacement therapy, community intervention and needle exchange<n>D.HIV testing, drug therapy and condom use[SEP]A
+Measles has been controlled in many countries by which of the following?<n>A.By hygiene<n>B.By MMR vaccine<n>C.By new molecular peptide vaccines<n>D.By humanised monoclonal antibodies to F protein[SEP]B
+How can the spread of filoviruses be restricted?<n>A.New antivirals<n>B.New humanised monoclonal antibodies<n>C.Hygiene and social distancing<n>D.New vaccines[SEP]C
+Most pandemics have arisen from influenza viruses from which of the following animals?<n>A.Pigs<n>B.Wild birds<n>C.Bats<n>D.Humans[SEP]A
+PreP is an effective strategy for reducing the incidence of HIV in:<n>A.Women<n>B.Drug users<n>C.Pregnant women<n>D.a. and b. above[SEP]B
+The replication of hepatitis B includes which of the following stages?<n>A.Movement of intact virus to the cellular cytoplasm for replication<n>B.Conversion of relaxed circular viral DNA in to covalently closed circular (CCC) DNA in the nucleus<n>C.Virions produced in the cytoplasm by cellular DNA polymerase<n>D.Oncogenic activity to transform liver cells.[SEP]C
+How does the papilloma family of viruses cause cancer?<n>A.Replicate in dividing cells and encodes three oncogenic proteins E5, E6 and E7<n>B.Integrates viral genome into cellular DNA<n>C.Has an oncogene able to initiate cancer<n>D.Acts as a co factor for a cellular oncogene[SEP]B
+The noroviruses typically cause which of the following?<n>A.Diarrhoea<n>B.Rash<n>C.Projectile vomiting and diarrhoea<n>D.Disease of the central nervous system[SEP]C
+Deep nucleotide sequencing (NGS) is now cheap enough for general application. What will the technique mainly be useful for?<n>A.Speedy vaccine development<n>B.Identifying genetic variation<n>C.Giving details on virus excretion in symptomless carriers<n>D.Quickly identifying new viruses[SEP]D
+Determinants of acquiring an HIV infection from an infected person per sexual act include:<n>A.Viral RNA level<n>B.Presence of other infections<n>C.Condom use<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+How is next generation sequencing (NGS) most often used?<n>A.To identify a newly discovered virus<n>B.To search for drug resistant mutants<n>C.To identify quasi species viruses<n>D.Cannot be used[SEP]D
+Which of the following HPV viruses are known to cause cervical cancer?<n>A.Viruses of all 5 clades<n>B.Types 14, 16, 18, 31, 45<n>C.None are oncogenic per se<n>D.Types 1-180[SEP]C
+Which member of the paramyxovirus family can cause very serious croup?<n>A.Measles<n>B.Meta pneumo virus<n>C.Hendra<n>D.Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)[SEP]B
+Which of the following is the cause of delay in HIV testing among the Latino population?<n>A.Stigma attached to the disease<n>B.Machismo<n>C.Drug abuse<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Describe the morphology of a togavirus.<n>A.Enveloped spherical particles with an icosahedral structure<n>B.Non-enveloped with an icosahedral structure<n>C.Filamentous virus with protruding glycoproteins<n>D.Small round viruses[SEP]A
+A good surveillance system should provide information about:<n>A.Who is being infected<n>B.Where the infected individuals are<n>C.How rapidly infection is spreading<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What has so far prevented polio being eradicated from the world?<n>A.Inability to vaccinate in some countries<n>B.Poor quality (unsafe) vaccines<n>C.Genetic variation<n>D.Expense[SEP]A
+The range of disease caused by the family is wide but identify the exception from the following:<n>A.Aplastic crisis in anaemia patients<n>B.Fifth disease at 'Slapped cheek' syndrome<n>C.Foetal infection with teratogenicity<n>D.Serious pneumonia[SEP]A
+Which of the following drugs inhibit herpes viruses?<n>A.Amantadine<n>B.Acyclovir<n>C.Oseltamivir<n>D.Azidothymidine[SEP]D
+The three countries with the most drug injectors are:<n>A.Bolivia, Argentina, Thailand<n>B.China, the U.S. and Russia<n>C.Afghanistan, Iraq and Myanmar<n>D.Lithuania, Estonia and Latvia[SEP]B
+Officials at a large community hospital report an increased incidence of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) among children aged 5 – 12. They point out that some households in the community are exposed to chemical waste from a nearby factory. They believe that chemical waste causes leukemia. If a study is designed to evaluate the hospital officials’ claim, which of the following subjects are most likely to comprise the control group?<n>A.Children exposed to the chemical waste who do not suffer from ALL<n>B.Children not exposed to the chemical waste who do not suffer from ALL<n>C.Children from the hospital’s outpatient clinic who do not suffer from ALL<n>D.Children not exposed to the chemical waste who suffer from ALL[SEP]B
+Lassa and Ebola are emergent viruses in W. Africa. What is their origin?<n>A.Humans<n>B.Primates<n>C.Fruit bats<n>D.Pigs[SEP]B
+Antivirals can be used prophylactically or therapeutically in persons in which of the following circumstances?<n>A.If administered within 4 days of clinical signs<n>B.If used within 48 hours of first clinical signs<n>C.Used for the obese<n>D.Used in children under the age of 2 years where high virus spread is noted[SEP]C
+Papillomaviruses cause warts and cancer but how do they most often infect humans?<n>A.Are water borne<n>B.Are airborne<n>C.Via scratches and breaks in the skin<n>D.Are nosocomial and spread in hospitals[SEP]C
+There are 57 serotypes of adenovirus currently recognised. Which has the most important clinical impact?<n>A.Diarrhoea<n>B.Eye infections<n>C.Respiratory tract infections<n>D.Haemorrhagic cystitis[SEP]C
+How are new polyomaviruses detailed<n>A.Shot gun sequencing<n>B.Cultivation in human neural cells<n>C.Deep pyro sequencing (NGS)<n>D.Monoclonal antibody techniques[SEP]A
+Describe the YF vaccine.<n>A.Killed virus vaccine<n>B.Live attenuated virus vaccine developed by Pasteurian passage<n>C.Live attenuated vaccine produced by direct mutation of the virus genome<n>D.Experimental vaccine only[SEP]B
+What is the biggest risk factor for infection with Ebola?<n>A.Working in a category IV laboratory<n>B.Attending a funeral of a victim outside<n>C.Nursing a patient at home<n>D.Attending football matches or large gatherings[SEP]A
+The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special "risk" sectors by:<n>A.Hygiene<n>B.Vaccination<n>C.Antiviral drugs<n>D.Humanised monoclonal antibodies[SEP]B
+A case-control study is conducted to assess the association between alcohol consumption and lung cancer patients with lung cancer and 100 controls are asked about their past alcohol consumption. According to the study results, alcohol consumption is strongly associated with lung cancer (OR = 2.5). The researchers then divide the study subjects into two groups: smokers and non-smokers. Subsequent statistical analysis does not reveal any association between alcohol consumption and lung cancer within either group. The scenario described is an example of which of the following?<n>A.Observer bias<n>B.Confounding<n>C.Placebo effect<n>D.Nonresponse bias[SEP]B
+How are arenaviruses spread?<n>A.Sexual contact<n>B.Blood<n>C.Aerosols of urine from infected small mammals<n>D.Mosquito bites[SEP]A
+Which areas of the world are rabies free?<n>A.USA<n>B.Norway<n>C.EU<n>D.Island nations, UK, NZ and Australia[SEP]D
+The risk of perinatal transmission of HIV-1 infection during breast feeding is increased due to:<n>A.Mixed feeding<n>B.Very early introduction of solids<n>C.Both a and b<n>D.None of them[SEP]C
+How is the parvovirus family targeted to reduce disease?<n>A.Transfusion blood is screened<n>B.Vaccine has been developed<n>C.A range of new antivirals<n>D.Social distancing[SEP]A
+Who discovered the first virus?<n>A.The microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek<n>B.The bacteriologist Charles Chamberland<n>C.The botanist Dmitri Iwanowsky<n>D.The virologist Jonas Salk[SEP]C
+Structural interventions typically target:<n>A.Policies<n>B.The environment<n>C.Availability<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What is the main clinical picture of hepatitis A?<n>A.Rash<n>B.Limb paralysis<n>C.Jaundice and abdominal discomfort<n>D.Upper respiratory tract infection[SEP]C
+If the human norovirus cannot be cultured in cell cultures how can it best be studied?<n>A.Animal models<n>B.Volunteer studies<n>C.In cells using replicon systems<n>D.Deductions from the 3 human ORF's of the virus genome[SEP]B
+Any systematic error in the design, conduct, or analysis of a study that results in a mistaken estimate of an exposure’s effect on the risk of disease is called:<n>A.Confounding<n>B.Bias<n>C.Interaction<n>D.Stratification[SEP]C
+Describe the coronavirus structure.<n>A.Club shaped glycoprotein spikes protrude through a lipid bilayer<n>B.An icosahedral structure with an envelope<n>C.An icosahedral large pleomorphic virus<n>D.Large regimented barrel shaped virus[SEP]C
+SARS is described as a zoonotic virus - what does this mean?<n>A.Such viruses are confined to animals<n>B.They do not cause disease in humans<n>C.They emerge from animals to cross the species barrier infrequently<n>D.They cause pandemics[SEP]A
+Which of the following coronaviruses has caused thousands of deaths around the world as an 'emergent' virus?<n>A.MERS<n>B.SARS<n>C.OC43<n>D.HKU1[SEP]A
+Clinical infection by an arenavirus is characterised by which one of the following?<n>A.Pantropic infection<n>B.Signs of malaria<n>C.Short (2-3 days) incubation<n>D.Hepatitis[SEP]A
+How does rubella cause foetal abnormalities?<n>A.By crossing the placenta early in pregnancy and infecting the foetus<n>B.By only infecting the placenta<n>C.By inducing cytokines and chemokines in the mother<n>D.By raising the temperature of the mother and inducing an abnormal immune reaction to the foetus[SEP]A
+Which of the following is an unusual feature of the replication cycle in coronaviruses?<n>A.The RNAs all terminate in a common 3´ and produce nested set transcripts<n>B.They take advantage of recombination with the long RNA genome<n>C.They are not highly mutable<n>D.They use capped cellular mRNA's[SEP]B
+Which replication strategy is paralleled by some other viruses?<n>A.Cytoplasmic replication and 'snatched caps' are used as primers for RNA transcription<n>B.Replicates in cytoplasmic tubules<n>C.Extracellular replication<n>D.Replicates in the nucleus[SEP]C
+The characteristic of a generalized epidemic is:<n>A.High rates in drug users<n>B.High rates in MSM<n>C.High rates in pregnant women<n>D.High rate in STD clinic attendees[SEP]C
+An updated version of classification shows the parvovirus family as having how many genera?<n>A.Having 5 genera<n>B.A very large number of virus types<n>C.Only a single virus<n>D.Only three viruses[SEP]B
+The largest Latino community in the U.S. is:<n>A.Puerto Rican<n>B.Mexican<n>C.Cuban<n>D.Brazilian[SEP]B
+How can epidemics of astrovirus mainly be controlled?<n>A.By vaccination<n>B.Using passive antibody<n>C.Basic knowledge of hand washing and food hygiene<n>D.Quarantine[SEP]C
+500 women aged 40 – 54 who present for routine check-ups are asked about their meat consumption the women turn out to be vegetarian. During the ensuing 5 years, 5 vegetarians and 43 non-vegetarians develop colorectal cancer. Which of the following best describes the study design?<n>A.Case series report<n>B.Cohort study<n>C.Case-control study<n>D.Cross-sectional study[SEP]A
+In the absence of treatment the risk of HIV transmission from an infected mother to her fetus/infant was highest in which of the following areas?<n>A.Africa<n>B.North America<n>C.Europe<n>D.Japan[SEP]A
+Poliovirus can most easily become more virulent by which of the following processes?<n>A.Mutation of the RNA genome at only a few positions<n>B.Recombining with another enterovirus<n>C.Altering its protein coat<n>D.Multiple nucleotide deletions and substitutions[SEP]A
+A virus such as influenza which emerges suddenly and spreads globally is called:<n>A.Epidemic<n>B.Endemic<n>C.Pandemic<n>D.Zoonotic[SEP]B
+Of the following factors, which are the most important factors for virus spread and infection?<n>A.Age<n>B.Sex<n>C.Genetic factors<n>D.Travel[SEP]D
+How do viruses of the calcivirus family replicate?<n>A.As negative strand RNA viruses<n>B.As positive strand RNA viruses<n>C.Retroviruses<n>D.Using genetic reassortment[SEP]B
+The parvoviruses have a rather unique genome; what form does it take?<n>A.Circular ds DNA<n>B.Small linear ss DNA<n>C.ds DNA genome<n>D.RNA genome with RT[SEP]D
+How can the morphology of filoviruses be described?<n>A.Very large ball like structure<n>B.Long filamentous threads<n>C.Icosahedral virion<n>D.Floppy membranes without defined morphology[SEP]C
+What is the usual direction of 'knowledge' in a cell?<n>A.From protein to DNA<n>B.From DNA to DNA<n>C.From DNA to RNA to protein<n>D.Random[SEP]C
+Why are drug combinations essential for HIV?<n>A.Single drugs are not completely inhibitory<n>B.Mutations negate the effect of one drug<n>C.Combinations of antibiotics are effective versus TB<n>D.The virus cannot mutate vs a combination[SEP]C
+Many virus infections result in immune pathology, this is caused predominantly by which of the following?<n>A.A cytokine storm<n>B.Antibody mediated reactions<n>C.A response of killer T cells (CD-8)<n>D.A decline in function of the immune system[SEP]A
+David Baltimore is a molecular biologist. What did he discover?<n>A.The structure of DNA<n>B.X-ray crystallographic techniques<n>C.The enzyme reverse transcriptase<n>D.The anti HIV drug zidovudine[SEP]C
+Identify the most commonly used diagnostic technique in the virus laboratory:<n>A.Virus isolation in cell culture<n>B.Deep sequencing (NGS)<n>C.Reverse transcriptase (RT) PCR<n>D.Immuno-serology[SEP]B
+The major risk group for HIV infection among Latinos is:<n>A.Heterosexual males<n>B.Homosexual males<n>C.Females<n>D.Injection drug users[SEP]B
+In HIV-associated tuberculosis cases, treatment with antiretrovirals should begin:<n>A.Before antiretroviral drugs are started<n>B.After antiretroviral drugs are started<n>C.Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs<n>D.Doesn’t make any difference[SEP]C
+A “benefit” of research may accrue:<n>A.To the participant<n>B.To his/her family<n>C.To society<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What is the current best option for preventing future outbreaks of Ebola?<n>A.Rebuild scientific, medical and nursing infrastructure and train staff<n>B.Early and accurate diagnosis with molecular kits<n>C.Develop effective vaccines<n>D.Arrange rapid intervention into West Africa with EU and USA army teams[SEP]D
+Where are arenaviruses predominately located in the world?<n>A.SE Asia<n>B.Russia<n>C.Africa and S. America<n>D.N. America[SEP]A
+The most important element of ethical research on human subjects is:<n>A.Beneficence<n>B.Justice<n>C.A methodologically sound study design<n>D.Informed consent[SEP]D
+The characteristic of injecting drug users in Asia is/are:<n>A.Strong family support<n>B.Low failure rate for rehabilitation centers<n>C.Remaining a member of the community<n>D.Both a and c[SEP]D
+Viruses have encouraged us to change our world, as we have now:<n>A.Eradicated smallpox<n>B.Eradicated polio<n>C.Increased hygiene<n>D.A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs[SEP]A
+What is the most important factor for virus classification?<n>A.The geometry of the virus<n>B.How many proteins the virus has<n>C.The disease a virus causes<n>D.Chemistry of the DNA and RNA[SEP]D
+The major issue for HIV infection among the Latino population is:<n>A.Late detection of HIV status<n>B.Cultural beliefs<n>C.Immigration<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Disease can most often be prevented by which of the following:<n>A.Vaccines<n>B.Antivirals<n>C.Hygiene<n>D.mosquito nets[SEP]A
+Results of surveillance should be distributed to:<n>A.Decision makers<n>B.The public<n>C.The data collectors<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Which is a major characteristic of the bunyavirus family?<n>A.Amplify by persistent infection of midgets, mosquitoes, sand flies, ticks<n>B.Predominantly mosquito borne<n>C.Genetic recombination or reassortment<n>D.Spread to humans via bites of mice and rats[SEP]A
+The group that permits analysis of the entire natural history of HIV/AIDS is:<n>A.Persistent seronegatives<n>B.Long-term survivors<n>C.Seroconverters<n>D.Long-term survivors with low levels of CD4+ cells[SEP]C
+The chance of acquiring HIV infection from factor VIII in the United States in 2011 is 0% primarily because:<n>A.All donors for factor VIII are screened<n>B.Factor VIII is subject to detergent “washing” prior to release<n>C.Factor VIII is made synthetically<n>D.Factor VIII is important from countries with no reported HIV[SEP]C
+The prevalence of HIV among Latino-Americans compared to other ethic groups in the U.S. is:<n>A.Highest<n>B.Higher than all other ethnic groups except African-Americans<n>C.Higher than in all other ethnic groups except African-Americans and<n>D.Native Americans[SEP]B
+What is the rubella syndrome?<n>A.A description of the 3 day rash of German measles<n>B.The teratogenic lesions of cataracts, deafness, mental retardation and microcephaly in the foetus<n>C.Combination of rash and post infection encephalitis<n>D.Side effects of the MMR vaccine[SEP]B
+What is the most common way for a virus to kill a cell?<n>A.Dissolves the cellular membrane<n>B.Induces apoptosis via caspases<n>C.Fragments cellular DNA<n>D.Totally blocks cellular transcription[SEP]B
+The influenza virus has complicated genetics mainly characterised by which of the following?<n>A.Genetic reassortment amongst 8 genes<n>B.High levels of recombination<n>C.Rapid adsorption and fusion from without via a hydrophobic peptide<n>D.High fidelity RNA replicase enzyme[SEP]B
+The highest risk of HIV infection among drug users in the U.S. is in:<n>A.The east coast<n>B.The central United States (Kansas, Missouri etc.)<n>C.Southern California<n>D.The Pacific Northwest (Washington, Oregon, Idaho)[SEP]A
+A study is conducted to assess the relationship between race and end-stage renal disease pathologists independently study specimens from 1,000 kidney biopsies. The first group of pathologists is aware of the race of the patient from whom the biopsy came, while the second group is blinded as to the patient’s race. The first group reports ‘hypertensive nephropathy’ much more frequently for black patients than the second group. Which of the following types of bias is most likely present in this study?<n>A.Confounding<n>B.Nonresponse bias<n>C.Recall bias<n>D.Referral bias[SEP]A
+What is urban yellow fever (YF)?<n>A.Part of a cycle of mosquitoes biting humans in cities<n>B.Part of a cycle of mosquitoes biting humans and monkeys in forested areas<n>C.A mutant of the YF virus<n>D.A YF species that has adapted to new mosquitoes[SEP]A
+The current testing policy of the Centers for Disease Control and the World Health Organization is:<n>A.“Opt-in”<n>B.“Opt-out”<n>C.Mandatory testing of prisoners<n>D.Mandatory testing of high-risk groups[SEP]B
+Common cold viruses are ubiquitous and invade by which route?<n>A.Faecal oral route<n>B.Respiratory and surface route<n>C.Cuts in the skin<n>D.Sexual transmission[SEP]B
+Assembly is a vital late replication stage for a virus and is often accomplished by which of the following?<n>A.Use of cellular scaffolding in the nucleus and cytoplasm<n>B.Snatching cellular lipids and membranes<n>C.Master plan embedded in the viral genome<n>D.Random interactions between cellular and virus proteins[SEP]A
+The biggest single determinant of HIV transmission to the infant is:<n>A.Mother’age<n>B.Mother’s viral load<n>C.Mother’s immune status<n>D.Father’s viral load[SEP]B
+What does the reproductive number of a virus tell us?<n>A.How virulent the infection will be<n>B.How many people will die<n>C.How many contacts will be infected from one case<n>D.How long the 'incubation period' will be[SEP]C
+PreP is most effective for which group:<n>A.Men with frequent unprotected sex<n>B.Men with infrequent unprotected sex<n>C.Women with frequent unprotected sex<n>D.Women with infrequent unprotected sex[SEP]A
+A special feature of adaptive immunity is:<n>A.Speed of response to a foreign protein<n>B.Ability to distinguish self and non self<n>C.Ability to distinguish viruses and bacteria<n>D.Short memory[SEP]B
+As regards the range of diseases caused by viruses:<n>A.Each member of the 'family' causes the same disease.<n>B.Members of many families can cause the same sort of disease.<n>C.Most virus disease are now controlled by vaccines.<n>D.Most viruses can cross placenta and be teratogenic.[SEP]B
+Which is the exception in the following range of disease symptoms caused by bunyaviruses?<n>A.Pneumonias<n>B.Haemorrhagic fever<n>C.Hepatitis<n>D.Impaired renal function[SEP]D
+There is no vaccine against HIV because of which of the following?<n>A.The virus is so antigenically variable<n>B.Such a vaccine would be too expensive<n>C.The virus can be controlled by a change in sexual habits<n>D.Latency can abrogate any vaccine effect[SEP]B
+The requirements for an effective surveillance system include:<n>A.A diagnostic algorithm<n>B.Staff members<n>C.A sampling frame<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+MERS has four special characteristics and here we have one exception - which is it?<n>A.Spread by faecal oral route<n>B.Aerosol droplet transmission<n>C.Reservoir in bats<n>D.A conduit to humans via camels[SEP]C
+The major beneficiary of Medicaid in the U.S. is:<n>A.Single men<n>B.The elderly<n>C.Women and children<n>D.Undocumented residents[SEP]C
+Which of the following is the most important for controlling disease caused by norovirus?<n>A.A norovirus vaccine<n>B.Attention to handwashing and hygiene<n>C.Quarantine<n>D.New antiviral drugs[SEP]B
+Why do vigorous CD8 cell responses in chronically infected HIV-positive individuals fail to eliminate the virus?<n>A.CTL exhaustion<n>B.Epitope escape<n>C.Suboptimal CTL<n>D.Absence of dendritic cells[SEP]B
+The most widespread and important retrovirus is HIV-1; which of the following is true?<n>A.Infecting only gay people<n>B.Infecting only males<n>C.Infecting every country in the world<n>D.Infecting only females[SEP]A
+The first acquired immune cell to respond defensively to HIV infection is:<n>A.CD4+<n>B.CD8+<n>C.CD57<n>D.NK cells[SEP]B
+Which of the following is a special feature of the rabies vaccine?<n>A.The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur<n>B.The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine<n>C.The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity<n>D.The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo[SEP]B
+Most viral vaccines are produced by which of the following techniques?<n>A.Traditional cell culture<n>B.Molecular biology<n>C.Animal tissues in vitro<n>D.VLPs (virus like particles)[SEP]B
+The treatment of hepatitis C has been revolutionised most recently by which of the following?<n>A.The use of interferon<n>B.A new vaccine<n>C.Monoclonal antibodies<n>D.Direct-acting Antivirals such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir[SEP]A
+Chikungunya has spread widely from Asia and Africa into the Caribbean in recent years. This has been mainly facilitated by:<n>A.Mutation in the virus allowing replication in the mosquito Aedes albopictus<n>B.Air Travel<n>C.Climate change<n>D.Poor mosquito control and the absence of DTT[SEP]A
+The successful anti-cancer HPV vaccine consists of:<n>A.Live virus attenuated by specific mutagenesis<n>B.Whole virus chemically inactivated vaccine<n>C.Self-assemble of virus L1 protein into VLP<n>D.Sub unit chemically inactivated vaccine[SEP]A
+The rotavirus is an important cause of which of the following?<n>A.Respiratory infection in adults<n>B.Gastroenteritis in children<n>C.Diarrhoea and vomiting in adults<n>D.Cancer[SEP]B
+The surveillance testing strategy associated with the least selection bias is:<n>A.Compulsory<n>B.Unlinked anonymous<n>C.Voluntary anonymous<n>D.Voluntary confidential[SEP]A
+In a medical class of 147 students, the distribution of scores on a biochemistry final examination has a mean equal to 67, a median equal to 76, a mode equal to 80, a standard deviation equal to 5.5, and a variance equal to 30.25. Three students were unable to take the test on the scheduled date and were given a different form of the exam 1 week later. Which parameter is most likely to be the least biased estimator of central tendency for this distribution of biochemistry test scores?<n>A.Mean<n>B.Median<n>C.Mode<n>D.Standard deviation[SEP]A
+What disease do herpes viruses not cause?<n>A.Infantile paralysis<n>B.Encephalitis<n>C.Sexually transmitted disease<n>D.Cancer[SEP]A
+The purpose of a double-blind or double-masked study is to:<n>A.Achieve comparability of treated and untreated subjects<n>B.Reduce the effects of sampling variation<n>C.Avoid observer and subject bias<n>D.Avoid observer bias and sampling variation[SEP]B
+Nipah is a zoonotic paramyxovirus; where did it originate?<n>A.Originating in pigs<n>B.Originating in bats<n>C.Coming from humans<n>D.Coming from horses[SEP]C
+What is the genome structure of the polyomavirus family?<n>A.Circular ds DNA with T antigen coding regions<n>B.Circular ssDNA<n>C.RNA genome with RT<n>D.Segmented RNA genome[SEP]C
+Interferons are very special defence mechanisms which operate by:<n>A.Binding to viruses<n>B.Binding to neighbouring cells<n>C.Producing a long lasting state of resistance<n>D.Inhibiting virus induced enzymes[SEP]B
+Genetic characteristics of the bunyavirus family include which one of the following?<n>A.Three segmented negative stranded RNA viruses with anti-sense expression<n>B.Highly mutable RNA viruses<n>C.Emerging viruses via arthropod vector<n>D.Use an RT enzyme[SEP]A
+The basic code of ethical research (respect for persons, beneficence, and justice) was first established by the:<n>A.Nuremberg Code<n>B.Declaration of Helsinki<n>C.CIOMS<n>D.Belmont Report[SEP]D
+The paramyxovirus family employ what strategy at virus entry?<n>A.Initiate a fusion 'from without' using virus F protein<n>B.Has fusion from within a cytoplasmic vacuole at low pH<n>C.Viruses can puncture plasma membranes at entry<n>D.A fusion mediated by M protein[SEP]D
+The risk of acquiring HIV from a unit of blood in the United States is now:<n>A.1/10,000 units<n>B.1/200,000 units<n>C.1/500,000 unit<n>D.1 per 2 million units[SEP]D
+What is the essential pathology of astroviruses?<n>A.Very restricted replication in the gut<n>B.Can cause infection of the central nervous system<n>C.Sequence diversity allows widespread replication<n>D.Can cause infection in the upper respiratory tract[SEP]A
+Which of the following are goals of vaccination?<n>A.Prevent infection<n>B.Prevent disease<n>C.Prevent transmission<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Randomization of study subjects in a clinical trial is most helpful for controlling for which of the following?<n>A.Placebo effect<n>B.Recall bias<n>C.Non-compliance<n>D.Effect modification (interaction)[SEP]A
+A quasi species virus such as influenza and HIV has which of the following characteristics?<n>A.A fragmented or segmented genome<n>B.Co-existence of innumerable genetic variants<n>C.Possesses RNA and DNA<n>D.A very large genome[SEP]B
+Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?<n>A.Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA<n>B.They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA<n>C.This genome is circular<n>D.Their RNA genome is segmented[SEP]A
+What is the genetic structure of rotavirus?<n>A.Circular DNA containing virus<n>B.RNA virus with RT<n>C.ds RNA virus<n>D.ds RNA virus in segments[SEP]B
+Are/were viruses:<n>A.The most abundant form of life on earth?<n>B.Discovered before bacteria?<n>C.Grown in animals in the laboratory?<n>D.The cause of all human disease?[SEP]A
+It is unlikely that a 'cure' of HIV is possible with current drugs because:<n>A.Even in combination current drugs do not completely block viral replication<n>B.They do not penetrate to cells<n>C.They cannot block viral transcription from integrated viral DNA<n>D.They cannot penetrate to the CNS[SEP]B
+Which viruses appear to be hypermutable?<n>A.DNA viruses<n>B.'Emerging' viruses<n>C.Influenza and HIV<n>D.RNA viruses[SEP]D
+How are herpes infections controlled?<n>A.Chemotherapy<n>B.Vaccines<n>C.Hygiene and social distancing<n>D.No method[SEP]A
+A new drug with in vitro activity against HIV is tested on a population of patients with Western-blot confirmed HIV infections. Out of the 200 individuals in the patient population, 100 are chosen by lottery to receive the drug. The drug, which is tasteless, is administered in a cup of orange juice; the other patients receive pure orange juice. Neither the nurses, doctors, nor the patients know which patients receive the drug. At the end of the study period, the number of CD4+ T cells is determined for all of the subjects. This is an example of a<n>A.Case-control study<n>B.Case report<n>C.Cohort study<n>D.Cross-sectional study[SEP]A
+What is the most successful and most widely used 'travel' vaccine for international visitors?<n>A.Influenza<n>B.MMR<n>C.Yellow Fever<n>D.Rabies[SEP]B
+What is a virus pandemic?<n>A.A sharp and rapid epidemic involving more than one country<n>B.An outbreak which recurs again and again<n>C.A rapid global outbreak starting from a single focus<n>D.A characteristic of common cold virus and HIV[SEP]C
+Benefits of opioid replacement therapy as an approach for HIV prevention include:<n>A.Reducing craving for and use of illicit opioids<n>B.More sharing of injecting paraphernalia<n>C.Reducing frequency of injection drug use<n>D.Both a and c[SEP]D
+Papilloma viruses are characterised by what genetic feature?<n>A.A genome of ds circular DNA encoding around 8 ORF<n>B.A virus with RT able to integrate and cause cancer<n>C.A variable ds RNA virus<n>D.A large DNA containing virus[SEP]A
+As part of the Women’s Health Study, researchers investigated the role of systemic inflammation in predicting cardiovascular disease in women (N Engl J Med. 2002;347[20]:1557-1565). Researchers used a prospective study design with a large sample size. Blood levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) were measured at baseline and women were followed for an average of 8 years. The following table shows the relative risk estimates of cardiovascular event (heart attack or stroke) within 5 years by quintile of CRP level for the 30,000 women. The first quintile is used as the reference category.  1 0.49 mg/dL Relative Risk Number of women  1.0 6000  2 >0.49-1.08 mg/dL 1.8 6000  Quintile of CRP Level 3 >1.08-2.09 mg/dL 2.3 6000  4 >2.09-4.19 mg/dL 3.2 6000  5 >4.19 mg/dL 4.5 6000  Based on the relative risk data above, one can conclude:<n>A.There is no risk of heart attack/stroke for women with CRP levels in the first quintile.<n>B.Decreasing CRP level appears to increase the risk of heart attack/stroke.<n>C.Increasing CRP level appears to increase the risk of heart attack/stroke.<n>D.There appears to be no association between CRP levels and heart attack/stroke.[SEP]A
+What is the morphology of the Dane particle?<n>A.Double shelled icosahedron<n>B.Lipid membrane free icosahedron<n>C.Flexuous and filamentous morphology<n>D.Numerous small particles[SEP]C
+The adenovirus virion has which unique structural feature?<n>A.Icosahedron<n>B.Icosahedron with slender fibres<n>C.'Complex' structure not yet fully explored<n>D.Flexuous lipid containing structure[SEP]B
+A city has a population of 250,000 cases and 400 deaths each year from this disease. There are 2,500 deaths per year from all causes. The prevalence of this disease is given by<n>A.400/250,000<n>B.600/250,000<n>C.1,000/250,000<n>D.2,500/250,000[SEP]D
+Which unique form does the rabies virus take?<n>A.The virion has a dumbbell appearance<n>B.It is shaped like a bullet from a gun<n>C.The virus is star shaped<n>D.The virion is very pleomorphic[SEP]D
+Which of the following diseases is not caused by togaviruses?<n>A.Chikungunya<n>B.Rubella (German measles)<n>C.Western Equine encephalitis<n>D.Yellow Fever[SEP]D
+Why are the viruses of this family called astroviruses?<n>A.Because of the nucleotide sequence of their genomes<n>B.The superficial appearance of a 'star' on negative straining electron microscopy<n>C.Because of isolation in very large numbers of mammals including dromedaries, cats and cattle<n>D.Because they are more common in developing countries with poor hygiene[SEP]B
+Why do emerging viruses like Zika and Ebola continue to plague us?<n>A.These viruses mutate and hence emerge<n>B.We disturb forests where they quietly exist as a zoonosis<n>C.Mosquitoes are the main culprit to encourage virus spread<n>D.The viruses can be halted by new vaccines[SEP]B

datasets/MMLU/world_religions.txt

+What can murtis be translated as?<n>A.Offerings<n>B.Prayers<n>C.Apparitions<n>D.Idols[SEP]D
+Naturalists who concentrated on natural elements and processes are associated with which of the following?<n>A.Daoism<n>B.Yin-Yang School<n>C.Mengzi<n>D.Humanistic Buddhism[SEP]B
+When was the first Buddhist temple constructed in Japan?<n>A.325 CE<n>B.119 CE<n>C.451 CE<n>D.596 CE[SEP]D
+What is the name of the ten day New Year festival that celebrated Babylon's culture?<n>A.Akitu<n>B.Wag and Thoth<n>C.Bast<n>D.Nehebkau[SEP]A
+Which of the following terms denote the Japanese art of flower arranging?<n>A.Zazen<n>B.Tariki<n>C.Kami<n>D.Ikebana[SEP]D
+Guru Nanak and his successors instructed the use of particular Sikh Ragas in order to promote which of the following?<n>A.Harmony and balance<n>B.Devotion and piety<n>C.Love and passion<n>D.Goodwill and love[SEP]A
+Guru Nanak used what term to denote the "divine word" as part of divine revelation?<n>A.Shabad<n>B.Khalse<n>C.Nam<n>D.Guru[SEP]A
+What is the mi'raj?<n>A.Muhammad's miraculous ascent to heaven<n>B.Muhammad's migration to Mecca<n>C.Muhammad's first community in Mecca<n>D.Muhammad's revelations of the Qur'an[SEP]A
+What is the name of the most famous dharmashastras, which probably dates from around the first century?<n>A.Laws of Dharma<n>B.Laws of Karma<n>C.Laws of Vishnu<n>D.Laws of Manu[SEP]D
+What does the term "Qur'an" literally mean?<n>A.The Holy Book<n>B.The Narrative<n>C.The Recitation<n>D.The Pillars[SEP]C
+Mani referred to God by which of the following names?<n>A.Mother of Light<n>B.Father of Goodness<n>C.Ineffable Lover<n>D.Eternal Spirit[SEP]B
+Which tradition is known to promote "gradual enlightenment"?<n>A.Bushido<n>B.Shinto<n>C.Nichiren<n>D.Soto Zen[SEP]D
+What is the communal meal offered at the place of worship called in Sikhism?<n>A.Sangat<n>B.Langar<n>C.Gurdwara<n>D.Panth[SEP]B
+To which tradition do the anti-Han rebel group known as the Celestial Masters belong?<n>A.Buddhism<n>B.Daoism<n>C.Confucianism<n>D.Shamanism[SEP]B
+What does the word "Islam" mean in Arabic?<n>A.Worship<n>B.Submission<n>C.Obedience<n>D.Faith[SEP]B
+What does the term anatman mean?<n>A.Suffering<n>B.Soul<n>C.Impermanence<n>D.No-self[SEP]D
+What genre of Sikh literature is denoted by the term janam-sakhis?<n>A.Spiritual narratives<n>B.Redemption narratives<n>C.Birth narratives<n>D.Theological narratives[SEP]C
+Pure Land Buddhism belongs to which school?<n>A.Vajrayana<n>B.Theravada<n>C.Mahayana<n>D.Mahavira[SEP]C
+Which Jaina group only allows women to lead a life of semi-renunciation?<n>A.Svetambara<n>B.Jina<n>C.Agama<n>D.Digambara[SEP]D
+What is the most important prayer in Judaism?<n>A.The Shema<n>B.The Sefirot<n>C.Deuteronomy<n>D.The Decalogue[SEP]A
+The socio-political alliance between the kshatriyas and the shramanas was rooted in their shared opposition to which of the following?<n>A.Brahminic orthodoxy<n>B.Legalistic asceticism<n>C.Bhakti devotionals<n>D.Unorthodox practices[SEP]A
+Which early battle led to the conversion of Mecca?<n>A.The Battle of Uhud<n>B.The Battle of Camel<n>C.The Battle of the Trench<n>D.The Battle of Badr[SEP]C
+What interior discipline must be adopted to achieve spiritual liberation within Sikhism?<n>A.Remembering the Divine Name<n>B.Meditating on the sacred hymns<n>C.Remembering that death is inevitable<n>D.Meditating on the goodness of the created world[SEP]A
+During Japan's occupation of Korea (1910-1945), which of the following was imposed upon the Koreans?<n>A.Confucianism<n>B.Buddhism<n>C.Christianity<n>D.Daoism[SEP]A
+What is the meaning of the Punjabi word "Sikh"?<n>A.Disciple<n>B.Faithful<n>C.Devotee<n>D.Enlightened[SEP]A
+Which of the following shuns politics?<n>A.The sages of the Zhuangzi<n>B.The Songs of the South<n>C.The Duke of Zhou<n>D.The Confucian "sage kings"[SEP]A
+What does the Hebrew word mashiach mean?<n>A.Anointed one<n>B.God<n>C.Prophet<n>D.The line of David[SEP]A
+According to Jaina traditions, what does the term ajiva mean?<n>A.Soul<n>B.Sound<n>C.Non-matter<n>D.Non-soul[SEP]D
+In the Japanese Zen tradition, what is zazen?<n>A.A collection of statues<n>B.Veneration of ancestors<n>C.Seated meditation<n>D.Funeral rituals[SEP]C
+What is a central component of tantric Buddhism?<n>A.Asceticism<n>B.Bodily pleasure<n>C.Music<n>D.Sexual union[SEP]D
+How does the Egyptian composition Ludul Bel Nemequi ("I will praise the Lord of wisdom) portray Marduk?<n>A.Loving and forgiving<n>B.Wrathful and merciful<n>C.Judging and vengeful<n>D.Transcendent and immanent[SEP]B
+After the Bar Kochba revolt, where were the two main centres for Jewish development?<n>A.Palestine and Babylonia<n>B.Babylonia and Europe<n>C.Palestine and Spain<n>D.Spain and France[SEP]A
+In addition to Jainism, which other tradition began as a world-renouncing movement?<n>A.Buddhism<n>B.Hinduism<n>C.Judaism<n>D.Islam[SEP]A
+According to Hindu tradition, which age are we in currently?<n>A.Kali yuga<n>B.Maha yuga<n>C.Krita yuga<n>D.Satya yuga[SEP]A
+In the Zoroastrian tradition, the term Gathas refers to which of the following?<n>A.Hymns<n>B.Laws<n>C.Ethics<n>D.Myths[SEP]A
+Which form of Buddhism taught the only hope for salvation was in the saving grace of Amida?<n>A.Pure Land<n>B.Tendai<n>C.Shingon<n>D.Soto Zen[SEP]A
+According to Hindu tradition, who is considered to be the ideal wife?<n>A.Sita<n>B.Rama<n>C.Kali<n>D.Durga[SEP]A
+Who is the woman mystic who exemplified the all-consuming love of the divine?<n>A.Rumi<n>B.Rabi'a<n>C.Fatimah<n>D.Khadija[SEP]B
+Who is the eighth-century CE female poet worshipped throughout many South Indian temples dedicated to Vishnu?<n>A.Andal<n>B.Devi<n>C.Ganga<n>D.Kali[SEP]A
+Who is associated with the stigmata and preaching to birds?<n>A.Paul of Tarsus<n>B.Clare of Assisi<n>C.Francis of Assisi<n>D.John of the Cross[SEP]C
+In his final work, Laws, Plato shifted from cosmology to which of the following issues?<n>A.Epistemology<n>B.Morality<n>C.Religion<n>D.Aesthetics[SEP]B
+Which Christian denomination promotes a stripped-down Christianity?<n>A.Greek Orthodox<n>B.Roman Catholic<n>C.Puritans<n>D.Quakers[SEP]D
+Rome claimed that their bishop (pope) was the director successor of which leader?<n>A.Peter<n>B.Paul<n>C.Jesus<n>D.Matthew[SEP]A
+When was the current Dalai Lama born?<n>A.1935<n>B.2000<n>C.1965<n>D.1975[SEP]A
+According to Jaina traditions, who were the caityavasis?<n>A.Householders who supported renouncers<n>B.Orthodox interpreters of the scriptures<n>C.Women ascetics who lived in communities<n>D.Temple-dwelling renouncers[SEP]D
+Zhuangzi describes a state as ziran, which means which of the following?<n>A.Thoughtfulness<n>B.Non-action<n>C.Spontaneity<n>D.Meditation[SEP]C
+The mudras, which are an important feature of Buddhist art, are also known as what?<n>A.hand gestures<n>B.saints<n>C.religious clothing<n>D.temples[SEP]A
+The Maccabean Revolt is associated with which ruler?<n>A.Julius Caesar<n>B.Alexander the Great<n>C.Cyrus of Persia<n>D.Antiochus IV Epiphanes[SEP]D
+How old was Guru Nanak when he started to preach the message of the divine Name?<n>A.30<n>B.40<n>C.33<n>D.52[SEP]A
+The widely adored Egyptian goddess Hathor was depicted as which of the following?<n>A.Serpent<n>B.Eagle<n>C.Cheetah<n>D.Cow[SEP]D
+What does the phrase Guru-Panth mean within the Sikh traditions?<n>A.Community<n>B.Scripture<n>C.Worship<n>D.Apprenticeship[SEP]A
+After what event did the Rabbinical period begin within Judaism?<n>A.Construction of the Second Temple<n>B.Destruction of the Second Temple<n>C.The Christianization of the Roman Empire<n>D.The emergence of Islam[SEP]B
+Which monk developed Pure Land Buddhism as we know it today?<n>A.Genshin<n>B.Dogen<n>C.Honen<n>D.Shinran[SEP]C
+Which is the largest Muslim country in the world with more than 200 million adherents?<n>A.Pakistan<n>B.Iraq<n>C.Indonesia<n>D.Turkey[SEP]C
+Which pope promoted the cults of St. Peter and St. Paul to bolster authority in Rome?<n>A.Gregory<n>B.Augustine<n>C.Athanasius<n>D.Francis[SEP]A
+Which of the following does the term "Arhats" refer to?<n>A.Enlightened being<n>B.Worthy ones<n>C.Saintly ones<n>D.Sages[SEP]A
+Which Guru was martyred when he refused to embrace Islam?<n>A.Guru Ram Das<n>B.Guru Tegh Bahadur<n>C.Guru Gobind Singh<n>D.Guru Har Rai[SEP]B
+Which Guru donned the two swords symbolling temporal and spiritual authority?<n>A.Guru Nanak<n>B.Guru Arjan<n>C.Guru Hargobind<n>D.Guru Ram Das[SEP]C
+Where is the key to liberation found within Sikhism?<n>A.In the community<n>B.In faith in God<n>C.In ascetic renunciation<n>D.In the life of the householder[SEP]D
+Which is one of the most fundamental themes of Japanese culture and civilization?<n>A.God is eternal and merciful to those who offer worship<n>B.Humans can align themselves with life energy through worship of kami<n>C.Justice will be the final outcome in the next world<n>D.Power and force are the most divine attributes[SEP]A
+Which goddess is worshipped during the festival of Divali?<n>A.Durga<n>B.Sri Lakshmi<n>C.Kali<n>D.Mahavira[SEP]B
+Where did people believe in the goddess known as Holy Mother of Mount Fairy Peach?<n>A.China<n>B.Silla<n>C.Goguryeo<n>D.Joseon[SEP]B
+To whom is the Yoga Sutras attributed?<n>A.Madhva<n>B.Patanjali<n>C.Ramanuja<n>D.Aryabhatta[SEP]B
+Which of the following does NOT describe the Ka'ba?<n>A.It was visited by Moses.<n>B.It is a haram.<n>C.It was built by Abraham.<n>D.It is a square building.[SEP]A
+Which elephant-headed Hindu deity is often described as the most beloved?<n>A.Parvati<n>B.Ganesha<n>C.Vishnu<n>D.Sita[SEP]B
+Sacred literature originated with which of the following jina?<n>A.Sri Lakshmi<n>B.Mahavira<n>C.Rsabha<n>D.Nanak[SEP]C
+Who is the author of Admonitions for Women?<n>A.Ban Zhao<n>B.Laozi<n>C.Menicus<n>D.Liu Xiang[SEP]A
+How many female renouncers were under the tutelage of Chandanbala?<n>A.36,000<n>B.12,000<n>C.24,000<n>D.7,000[SEP]A
+According to the Sikh tradition, the Mul Mantar illuminates the nature of what?<n>A.Ultimate Reality<n>B.The gurus<n>C.The community<n>D.Sikh worship[SEP]A
+What term refers the divine order as an ell-embracing higher principle in Sikhism?<n>A.Sansar<n>B.Hukam<n>C.Mantar<n>D.Karam[SEP]B
+How many books are in the New Testament?<n>A.30<n>B.29<n>C.27<n>D.47[SEP]C
+Which form of Buddhism focuses on social engagement that attracts lay participation?<n>A.Zen Buddhism<n>B.Chan Buddhism<n>C.Humanistic Buddhism<n>D.Pure Land Buddhism[SEP]C
+What was one of the distinctive beliefs or practices of the southerners (Digambara)?<n>A.They worshipped exclusively outside of the temple<n>B.They believed that nakedness was an elemental expression of non-attachment<n>C.They included women within the ranks of the leadership<n>D.They believed that the omniscient Jina must eat and sleep[SEP]B
+The central prayer in Jainism is known by which of the following names?<n>A.Namokar Mantra<n>B.The Liberation Mantra<n>C.Ahimsa<n>D.Archaryas[SEP]A
+When did the first Jaina temples appear?<n>A.Second century CE<n>B.Fifth century CE<n>C.Fifth century BCE<n>D.Eighteenth century CE[SEP]B
+How many Jinas have appeared during our age?<n>A.7<n>B.42<n>C.24<n>D.13[SEP]C
+The title Dalai Lama means which of the following?<n>A.Ocean of Love<n>B.Lover of Wisdom<n>C.Ocean of Wisdom<n>D.Stillness of Love[SEP]C
+Who accompanies Vishnu in many of his incarnations as his consort, and is known as the goddess of good fortune?<n>A.Parvati<n>B.Sita<n>C.Sri (Lakshmi)<n>D.Sarasvati[SEP]C
+What is bhakti often translated as?<n>A.Gods<n>B.Yoga<n>C.Devotion<n>D.Religion[SEP]C
+Which Hindu god or goddess is speech incarnate, the power of the word, and the mother of the Vedas?<n>A.Vishnu<n>B.Ganesha<n>C.Sarasvati<n>D.Indra[SEP]C
+What is the name of the Jewish prayer used for mourning since the Middle Ages?<n>A.The Shema<n>B.The Kaddish<n>C.The K'nesset<n>D.The Kippah[SEP]B
+Krishna and Rama are incarnations of which Hindu god?<n>A.Shiva<n>B.Vishnu<n>C.Brahma<n>D.Ganesha[SEP]B
+The kshatriyas is the caste name assigned to which group?<n>A.Priests<n>B.Servants<n>C.Rulers, warriors<n>D.Merchants[SEP]C
+When was the Old Babylonian version of Gilgamesh modified into the standard version?<n>A.Toward the end of the first millennium BCE<n>B.Towards the middle of the first millennium BCE<n>C.Toward the end of the second millennium BCE<n>D.Toward the middle of the second millennium BCE[SEP]C
+What is the meaning ofsamyak jnanawithin the Jaina traditions?<n>A.Correct knowledge<n>B.Correct practice<n>C.Correct intiution<n>D.Correct belief[SEP]C
+What type of Buddhist organization is the Bodu Bala Sena?<n>A.Activist and militant organization in Sri Lanka<n>B.Ecumenical organization in India<n>C.Modern organization in the United States<n>D.Peacekeeping organization in Japan[SEP]A
+Which mystic believed that evil was a distortion that reveals divine love more clearly?<n>A.Julian of Norwich<n>B.Catherine of Siena<n>C.Teresa of Avila<n>D.John of the Cross[SEP]A
+In the Jaina traditions "bad karma" is known by which of the following terms?<n>A.Paap<n>B.Punya<n>C.Pudgala<n>D.Akash[SEP]A
+During what Japanese festival do the spirits of deceased family members return to receive ritual offerings of food made by their loved ones?<n>A.Obon<n>B.Mikoshi<n>C.Omizutori<n>D.Tanabata[SEP]A
+What does "Mahavira" mean?<n>A."Great Hero"<n>B."Master"<n>C."The Lesser One"<n>D."Mendicant"[SEP]A
+What does the Tripitaka mean?<n>A.Three gems<n>B.Three baskets<n>C.Three bodhisattvas<n>D.Three buddhas[SEP]B
+Where is the largest network of Confucian shrines in the world?<n>A.Indonesia<n>B.China<n>C.Korea<n>D.Singapore[SEP]C
+Ghosa, Apala and Lopamurda, all named in the early Vedas, are which of the following?<n>A.Female princesses<n>B.Female warriors<n>C.Female goddesses<n>D.Female poets[SEP]D
+What is the title for the religious and administrative leaders who succeeded the Prophet?<n>A.Rasul<n>B.Nabi<n>C.Caliph<n>D.Mahdi[SEP]C
+Which of the following is NOT included in the Islamic understanding of jurisprudence?<n>A.Consensus<n>B.Personal reasoning<n>C.Interpretation<n>D.Divine inspiration[SEP]D
+Why is Mahavira a significant person in the Jaina traditions?<n>A.He is the last of the ascetic prophets.<n>B.He is the first of the ascetic prophets<n>C.He is the most learned of the ascetic prophets<n>D.He is the most holy of the ascetic prophets[SEP]A
+The Tibetan Book of the Dead is also known as which of the following?<n>A.Bardo Thodol<n>B.Bardo Ngawang<n>C.Bardo Gyaltsen<n>D.Bardo Chogye[SEP]A
+Which Hindu festival involves decorating the house with lights, setting off firecrackers and wearing new clothes?<n>A.Deepavali<n>B.Holi<n>C.Diwali<n>D.Navaratri[SEP]A
+What hours are set aside as the ambrosial hours for the Sikhs?<n>A.5–7 a.m.<n>B.9–11 p.m.<n>C.3–6 p.m.<n>D.3–6 a.m.[SEP]D
+Self-sacrifice is an important theme for which Buddhist thinker?<n>A.Thich Nhat Hanh<n>B.The Dalai Lama<n>C.Daisetsu T. Suzuki<n>D.Shaku Soyen[SEP]A
+How many times a day is the Fatihah recited?<n>A.Exactly 17<n>B.At least 17<n>C.At least 13<n>D.Exactly 24[SEP]B
+Which branch of Judaism founded by Zacharias Frankel is known for its "Positive-Historical Judaism"?<n>A.Conservative<n>B.Reformed<n>C.Reconstructionism<n>D.Orthodox[SEP]A
+What is the term used to describe the "pure" as an order of loyal Sikhs bound together?<n>A.Khalsa<n>B.Rahit<n>C.Panj Kakke<n>D.Shabad[SEP]A
+Who is the founder of Sikhism?<n>A.Guru Gobind Singh<n>B.Guru Nanak<n>C.Guru Kabir<n>D.Guru Hargobind[SEP]B
+Which term is usually associated with women in Hindu traditions?<n>A.Polluted<n>B.Ideal<n>C.Auspiciousness<n>D.Kind[SEP]C
+What is another name for Enuma Elish?<n>A.Epic of Creation<n>B.Epic of Destruction<n>C.Epic of Egypt<n>D.Epic of Origins[SEP]A
+What was the most important female-centered festival in cities throughout Greece?<n>A.Thesmophoria<n>B.Oracle Days<n>C.Isthmian Games<n>D.Feast of Athrodite[SEP]A
+Speaking in tongues is a feature of which Christian denomination?<n>A.Evangelicalism<n>B.Pietism<n>C.Pentecostalism<n>D.Fundamentalism[SEP]C
+Charism can be defined as which of the following?<n>A.An oil<n>B.Prophecy<n>C.A spiritual gift<n>D.Authority[SEP]C
+In Islam, what is the qiblah?<n>A.Almsgiving<n>B.Pilgrimage<n>C.Direction of prayer<n>D.Revelation[SEP]C
+In Tendai Buddhism, what does the term honji mean?<n>A.Trace<n>B.Original ground<n>C.Manifestation<n>D.True sign[SEP]B
+What is the name of a recent revivalist movement in Turkey led by Fetullah Gülen?<n>A.Hizmet<n>B.Nation of Islam<n>C.Muslim Brotherhood<n>D.Sufism[SEP]A
+For whom are the Hindu Vedas most significant?<n>A.Brahmins<n>B.Kshatriyas<n>C.Shiva<n>D.Yogis[SEP]A
+According to the Korean foundation myth, who transformed into a human in order to father Dangun?<n>A.Hwanin<n>B.Hwanung<n>C.Joseon<n>D.Yi[SEP]B
+In Buddhism, what are ordained women known as?<n>A.Bhikshus<n>B.Bhikshunis<n>C.The Sangha<n>D.Arhats[SEP]B
+What is the name of the most authoritative Kabbalah text?<n>A.Gemarah<n>B.Midrash<n>C.Zohar<n>D.Septuagint[SEP]C
+Which Confucian philosopher is described as a mystic due to his focus on qi (or ch'i)?<n>A.Dao<n>B.Xunzi<n>C.Mencius<n>D.Confucius[SEP]C
+Which of the following does the Qur'an permit?<n>A.Honor Killing<n>B.Stoning<n>C.Adultery<n>D.Polygyny[SEP]D
+Which is the main form of Buddhism in Sri Lanka?<n>A.Theravada<n>B.Mahayana<n>C.Pure Land<n>D.Zen[SEP]A
+Which leader is known for spreading the dharma of non-violence?<n>A.Ngo Dinh Diem<n>B.The Dalai Lama<n>C.Siddhartha<n>D.Ashoka[SEP]D
+What are the two sacraments that all Christians celebrate?<n>A.Baptism and Eucharist<n>B.Baptism and Ordination<n>C.Eucharist and Marriage<n>D.Eucharist and Confession[SEP]A
+What is the most important festival for Sikhs?<n>A.Holi<n>B.Divali<n>C.Baisakhi Day<n>D.Hola Mahalla[SEP]C
+Who declared Muhammad a prophet?<n>A.Khadijah<n>B.Gabriel<n>C.Waraqah<n>D.Abu Bakr[SEP]C
+The Jataka tales are a collection of which genre of stories?<n>A.Life stories<n>B.Warrior stories<n>C.Birth stories<n>D.Hero stories[SEP]C
+Which of the following is the timespan for Japan's closure to Christianity and Europe?<n>A.1749-1945<n>B.1052-1616<n>C.1641-1853<n>D.1517-1870[SEP]C
+In Yiddish, what is the word for covenant?<n>A.Haggadah<n>B.Halakhah<n>C.Brit<n>D.Bris[SEP]D
+According to the Sumerian King List, where does kingship come from?<n>A.Through initiation into the mystery cults<n>B.By military victories<n>C.Direct lineage of ancestors<n>D.Descends from heaven[SEP]D
+What is the name of the Hindu community associated with environmental activism?<n>A.Puranas<n>B.Bishnoi<n>C.Rajasthan<n>D.Jambho[SEP]B
+Which bodhisattva is known for conducting the souls of dead children to salvation?<n>A.Guan-yin<n>B.Kannon<n>C.Ojizo-sama<n>D.Amitabha[SEP]C
+The Gospel of John is associated with which theological concept?<n>A.Incarnation<n>B.Logos of God<n>C.Jesus as messiah and saviour<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+Which god supplanted the earlier Mesopotamian supreme god Enil?<n>A.Horus<n>B.Inanna<n>C.Marduk<n>D.Isis[SEP]C
+Which of the following movements was founded by Mordechai Kaplan?<n>A.Liberal Judaism<n>B.Reform Judaism<n>C.Conservative Judaism<n>D.Reconstructionist Judaism[SEP]D
+When was the State of Israel established?<n>A.1947<n>B.1948<n>C.1945<n>D.1949[SEP]B
+Icons are a main feature of which church?<n>A.Anglican<n>B.Catholic<n>C.Orthodox<n>D.Lutheran[SEP]C
+The first of the Four Noble Truths teaches which of the following cannot be escaped?<n>A.Pride<n>B.Hatred<n>C.Suffering<n>D.Fate[SEP]C
+The Continental Reformation started in what year?<n>A.1545<n>B.1517<n>C.1492<n>D.1705[SEP]B
+The minimalism of Haiku is said to be derived from which tradition?<n>A.Zen Buddhism<n>B.Shinto<n>C.Pure Land Buddhism<n>D.Confucianism[SEP]A
+Which deity is the Roman counterpart to the Greek god Zeus?<n>A.Jupiter<n>B.Juno<n>C.Dionysius<n>D.Neptune[SEP]A
+The philosopher Laozi is associated with which tradition?<n>A.Jainism<n>B.Buddhism<n>C.Confucianism<n>D.Daoism[SEP]D
+Which Egyptian gods did Akhenaten make a determined effort to eliminate?<n>A.Shu and Set<n>B.Horus and Isis<n>C.Amun and Mut<n>D.Khonsu and Nekhbet[SEP]C
+The term xin refers to which of the following?<n>A.Piety<n>B.Non-action<n>C.Heart-mind<n>D.World[SEP]C
+Which term in the dharma texts of the classical period denotes the four stages of life?<n>A.Kama<n>B.Samnyasin<n>C.Ashramas<n>D.Arthas[SEP]C
+What is the term for commentary on the Qur'an, which means "unveiling"?<n>A.fiqh<n>B.dhikr<n>C.ijtihad<n>D.tafsir[SEP]D
+With which branch of Islam are the Isma'ilis are associated?<n>A.The Sunni<n>B.The Shi'a<n>C.The Sufi<n>D.The Ahmadiyya[SEP]B
+The term mappo is associated with which of the following?<n>A.The dharma<n>B.An age of decline<n>C.The golden age<n>D.Samurai[SEP]B
+What is the name of the bodhisattva in Japan known for a commitment to alleviating suffering?<n>A.Amaterasu<n>B.Izanami<n>C.Kannon<n>D.Guanyin[SEP]C
+Who was the first significant anchorite hermit?<n>A.Pachomius<n>B.Athanasius<n>C.Anthony<n>D.Basil[SEP]C
+Which are the synoptic Gospels?<n>A.Peter, John, Mark<n>B.Matthew, Mark, John<n>C.Matthew, Mark, Luke<n>D.John, Luke, Mark[SEP]C
+What is the English title for the divination text also known as the Yijing?<n>A.The Classic of Documents<n>B.The Lotus Sutra<n>C.The Flower Garland Sutra<n>D.The Classic of Changes[SEP]D
+Where was the most famous site of the mystery cults in Greece?<n>A.Ephesus<n>B.Corinth<n>C.Athens<n>D.Eleusis[SEP]D
+When did the Babylonian captivity of "Exile" begin?<n>A.515 BCE<n>B.535 BCE<n>C.586 BCE<n>D.70 CE[SEP]C
+The term vajrya means diamond and which of the following?<n>A.Emerald<n>B.Brilliance<n>C.Thunderbolt<n>D.Lightning[SEP]C
+In Jainism, what is the cycle that one must liberate oneself from?<n>A.Punya<n>B.Samsara<n>C.Samayika<n>D.Jiva[SEP]B
+The classic text Daodejing is known by what title in English?<n>A.Classic of Changes<n>B.Classic of the Way and Power<n>C.Classic of Women<n>D.Classic of Philosophy[SEP]B
+The Communidades de Base is associated with which of the following?<n>A.Bishop Oscar Romero<n>B.Resistance and renewal<n>C.Dignity of all human beings<n>D.All of the above[SEP]D
+What does the term matsuri mean?<n>A.Amulets<n>B.Meditation<n>C.Rituals<n>D.Grand festivals[SEP]D
+Which Roman statesman encouraged civic religion in his work The Laws?<n>A.Varro<n>B.Plato<n>C.Cicero<n>D.Augustus[SEP]C
+What does "Svetambara" mean?<n>A."Sky-clad"<n>B."Naked"<n>C."White-clad"<n>D."Clothed"[SEP]C
+What is seen by Europeans, and many Muslims, as the symbol of Islam?<n>A.The Hijab<n>B.The Crescent<n>C.The Minaret<n>D.The Qur'an[SEP]B
+What is the purpose for hearing the Guru's Vak in the morning?<n>A.Prayers on behalf of people outside of the Sikh community<n>B.Communal confession to cleanse the community<n>C.Inspiration for personal meditation throughout the day<n>D.Doctrinal instruction for discussion in the community[SEP]C
+What are the rabbinical commentaries produced after the Mishnah called?<n>A.Septuagint<n>B.Talmud<n>C.Yeshiva<n>D.Gemarah[SEP]D
+What is a mohel?<n>A.A ritual circumciser<n>B.A type of oil lame<n>C.A teacher<n>D.A covenant[SEP]A
+The "Flower Sermon" is associated with which form of Buddhism?<n>A.Theravada<n>B.Chan-Zen<n>C.Pure Land<n>D.Yogicara[SEP]B
+When was the major shift by Greek philosophers who rejected the anthropomorphic view of the divine?<n>A.Early Third Century BCE<n>B.Second and First Century BCE<n>C.Late Sixth Century BCE<n>D.Fourth and Third Century BCE[SEP]C
+What is the foremost reason for wearing the hijab in the present day?<n>A.Islamic identity<n>B.Islamic modesty<n>C.Islamic obedience<n>D.Islamic seclusion[SEP]A
+The Oral Torah, in its written form, is known as what?<n>A.Mishnah<n>B.Midrash<n>C.Tanakh<n>D.Pentateuch[SEP]A
+What has been a central focus of religious traditions in China and Korea?<n>A.Peace and harmony<n>B.Power and influence<n>C.Truth and love<n>D.Wisdom and ethics[SEP]A
+To whom did ordinary folk appeal during a drought in the time of the Han Dynasty?<n>A.The Buddha<n>B.Laozi<n>C.The Queen Mother of the West<n>D.Confucius[SEP]C
+The theological term homoousios means which of the following?<n>A.of a similar substance<n>B.of the same substance<n>C.of like substance<n>D.of human substance[SEP]B
+According to the Japanese origin myth, who gives birth to Amaterasu from his left eye?<n>A.Es<n>B.Izanagi<n>C.Izanami<n>D.Kami[SEP]B
+The numen of Augustus referred to which of the following characteristics?<n>A.Divine power<n>B.Sexual virility<n>C.Military acumen<n>D.Philosophical intellect[SEP]A

doc/.coveragerc

+[html]
+directory = coverage
+
+[run]
+data_file = .coverage_$LOCAL_RANK

docker/Dockerfile

+FROM image.sourcefind.cn:5000/dcu/admin/base/pytorch:2.1.0-centos7.6-dtk24.04-py310
\ No newline at end of file

docs/Yuan2_fastchat.md

+# 基于Fastchat实现源2.0的微调和推理部署
+
+[FastChat](https://github.com/lm-sys/FastChat)是一个用于训练、部署和评估基于LLM(大型语言模型)的聊天机器人的开放平台。通过使用huggingface [transformers](https://github.com/huggingface/transformers)支持LLM基于deepspeed/fsdp的多节点多卡微调；下述介绍使用FastChat微调yuan2.0模型的流程。
+
+## 准备微调环境
+
+- docker pull nvcr.io/nvidia/pytorch:23.08-py3
+- docker run -v HOST_WORK_PATH:/workspace/ --ipc=host  --gpus all -p host-port:container-port --shm-size='64g' -it  nvcr.io/nvidia/pytorch:23.08-py3 /bin/bash
+- git  clone  https://github.com/lm-sys/FastChat.git
+- cd  FastChat
+- pip  config  set  global.index-url  https://pypi.tuna.tsinghua.edu.cn/simple
+- pip install -e  ".[model_worker,webui,train]"
+- pip install deepspeed “bitsandbytes>=0.39.0” “transformers==4.31.0” plotly openai
+
+## 准备模型及数据
+- 获取[yuan2.0](https://github.com/IEIT-Yuan/Yuan-2.0?tab=readme-ov-file#hugging-face%E7%89%88%E6%9C%AC-)  huggingface模型文件： 
+- 准备数据：FastChat为聊天机器人训练及服务做支持，因此其所需要的标准数据集为多轮及单轮对话数据集。<br />(1)自定义数据集时，使用[fastchat](https://github.com/lm-sys/FastChat/blob/main/data/dummy_conversation.json)所要求的数据格式，如使用下述json格式的文件定义单论或多轮对话数据集。<br />(2)使用已有的指令数据集改造为单轮对话，可以使用alpaca-data[英文](https://github.com/tatsu-lab/stanford_alpaca?tab=readme-ov-file#data-release)或[中文](https://github.com/hiyouga/LLaMA-Factory/blob/main/data/alpaca_data_zh_51k.json)数据集进行对应格式的改造。
+<br />(3)使用开源的多轮对话数据集，如BELLE项目开源的用户与助手的多轮对话数据集[bella-0.8M](https://huggingface.co/datasets/BelleGroup/multiturn_chat_0.8M)。
+
+```
+#multi turns example
+[
+   [
+  {
+    "id": "identity_0",
+    "conversations": [
+      {
+        "from": "human",
+        "value": "Who are you?"
+      },
+      {
+        "from": "gpt",
+        "value": "I am Vicuna, a language model trained by researchers from Large Model Systems Organization (LMSYS)."
+      },
+      {
+        "from": "human",
+        "value": "Have a nice day!"
+      },
+      {
+        "from": "gpt",
+        "value": "You too!"
+      }
+    ]
+  },
+  {
+    "id": "identity_1",
+    "conversations": [
+      {
+        "from": "human",
+        "value": "Who are you?"
+      },
+      {
+        "from": "gpt",
+        "value": "My name is Vicuna, and I'm a language model developed by Large Model Systems Organization (LMSYS)."
+      }
+    ]
+  },
+]
+# single turn example
+[
+  {
+    "id": "1",
+    "conversations": [
+      {
+        "from": "human",
+        "value": "Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request.\n\n### Instruction:\nGive three tips for staying healthy.\n\n### Response:"
+      },
+      {
+        "from": "gpt",
+        "value": "1.Eat a balanced diet and make sure to include plenty of fruits and vegetables. \n2. Exercise regularly to keep your body active and strong. \n3. Get enough sleep and maintain a consistent sleep schedule."
+      }
+    ]
+  },
+  {
+    "id": "2",
+    "conversations": [
+      {
+        "from": "human",
+        "value": "Below is an instruction that describes a task. Write a response that appropriately completes the request.\n\n### Instruction:\nWhat are the three primary colors?\n\n### Response:"
+      },
+      {
+        "from": "gpt",
+        "value": "The three primary colors are red, blue, and yellow."
+      }
+    ]
+  },
+```
+## 使用fastchat 中定制的yuan2.0训练脚本文件
+
+```
+在fastchat/train/train_mem.py脚本中
+- from fastchat.train.train import train
++ from fastchat.train.train_yuan2 import train
+
+在fastchat/train/train_lora.py脚本中
+-from fastchat.train.train import (
+-    DataArguments,
+-    ModelArguments,
+-    make_supervised_data_module,
+-)
+
++from fastchat.train.train_yuan2 import (
++    DataArguments,
++    ModelArguments,
++    make_supervised_data_module,
++)
+
+将fastchat/train/train_yuan2.py脚本中的special tokenizer复制到train_lora.py
++tokenizer.add_tokens(
++        [
++            "<eod>",
++            "<sep>",
++            "<pad>",
++           "<mask>",
++           "<predict>",
++           "<FIM_SUFFIX>",
++          "<FIM_PREFIX>",
++          "<FIM_MIDDLE>",
++          "<commit_before>",
++          "<commit_msg>",
++          "<commit_after>",
++          "<jupyter_start>",
++          "<jupyter_text>",
++          "<jupyter_code>",
++          "<jupyter_output>",
++          "<empty_output>",
++      ],
++      special_tokens=True,
++  )
+
+```
+> fastchat中添加的yuan2_template相关信息，以下内容无需修改，开发者如有特殊需求可调整或改变如下相关模板信息
+```
+#yuan template infomation
+
+fastchat/conversation.py脚本，包含yuan2.0 chat定制的模板信息
+
+# Yuan2.0 chat template
+# source: https://huggingface.co/IEITYuan/Yuan2-2B-Janus-hf/blob/main/tokenizer_config.json#L6
+register_conv_template(
+    Conversation(
+        name="yuan2",
+        roles=("user", "assistant"),
+        sep_style=SeparatorStyle.YUAN2,
+        sep="<sep>",
+        sep2="\n",
+        stop_token_ids=[
+            77185,
+        ],  # "<eod>"
+        stop_str="<eod>",
+    )
+)
+fastchat/model/model_adapter.py脚本， 包含yuan2.0 chat模型及tokenizer加载时的函数
+
+class Yuan2Adapter(BaseModelAdapter):
+    """The model adapter for Yuan2.0"""
+
+    def match(self, model_path: str):
+        return "yuan2" in model_path.lower()
+
+    def load_model(self, model_path: str, from_pretrained_kwargs: dict):
+        revision = from_pretrained_kwargs.get("revision", "main")
+        # from_pretrained_kwargs["torch_dtype"] = torch.bfloat16
+        tokenizer = LlamaTokenizer.from_pretrained(
+            model_path,
+            add_eos_token=False,
+            add_bos_token=False,
+            eos_token='<eod>',
+            eod_token='<eod>',
+            sep_token='<sep>',
+            revision = revision,
+        )
+        tokenizer.add_tokens(
+            ['<sep>', '<pad>', '<mask>', '<predict>', '<FIM_SUFFIX>', '<FIM_PREFIX>', '<FIM_MIDDLE>', '<commit_before>',
+             '<commit_msg>', '<commit_after>', '<jupyter_start>', '<jupyter_text>', '<jupyter_code>',
+             '<jupyter_output>', '<empty_output>'], special_tokens=True)
+
+        model = AutoModelForCausalLM.from_pretrained(
+            model_path,
+            # device_map='auto',
+            trust_remote_code=True,
+            **from_pretrained_kwargs
+        )
+        return model, tokenizer
+
+    def get_default_conv_template(self, model_path: str) -> Conversation:
+        return get_conv_template("yuan2")
+
+fastchat/model/model_yuan2.py脚本，包含yuan2.0 chat模型生成内容时的默认设置
+
+```
+## 源2.0全量微调
+```
+CUDA_VISIBLE_DEVICES=0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7 torchrun --nproc_per_node=8 --master_port=20001 fastchat/train/train_mem.py \
+        --model_name_or_path  path-to-huggingface-models \
+        --trust_remote_code True\
+        --data_path ./data/alpaca_data_zh_conversion.json \
+        --bf16 True \
+        --output_dir ./test_yuan2b_full \
+        --num_train_epochs 3 \
+        --per_device_train_batch_size 4 \
+        --per_device_eval_batch_size 1 \
+        --gradient_accumulation_steps 4 \
+        --evaluation_strategy "no" \
+        --save_strategy "steps" \
+        --save_steps 1200 \
+        --save_total_limit 10 \
+        --learning_rate 2e-5 \
+        --weight_decay 0. \
+        --warmup_ratio 0.03 \
+        --lr_scheduler_type "cosine" \
+        --logging_steps 1 \
+        --tf32 True \
+        --model_max_length 1024 \
+        --gradient_checkpointing True \
+        --lazy_preprocess True \
+        --deepspeed playground/zero2_ds_woloading.json \
+        --efficient_loss False \
+        --split_example_loss True \
+        --last_response_loss False \
+```
+ 
+> <br />--model_max_length 可以指定微调时单个样本最大长度；<br /><br />--efficient_loss,--split_example_loss,--last_response_loss,代表了三种不同的面对多轮对话的loss计算方式。(1) efficient_loss代表计算聊天助手回答部分的loss；(2) last_response_loss代表只计算最后一轮聊天助手回答部分的loss；(3) split_example_loss代表将多轮对话拆分成多组样本，计算每组样本中最后一轮聊天助手内容部分的loss。选择时有且仅有一个为True，其余为False。 <br /><br />其余参数可以参考[fastchat源码](https://github.com/lm-sys/FastChat)及[transformers](https://github.com/huggingface/transformers)理解
+- zero2 config文件参考
+```
+{
+  "zero_optimization": {
+     "stage": 2,
+     "allgather_partitions": true,
+     "allgather_bucket_size": 5e8,
+     "reduce_scatter": true,
+     "reduce_bucket_size": 5e8,
+     "overlap_comm": false,
+     "contiguous_gradients": true
+  },
+   "bf16": {
+   "enabled": "auto",
+   "loss_scale": 0,
+   "initial_scale_power": 16,
+   "loss_scale_window": 1000,
+   "hysteresis": 2,
+   "min_loss_scale": 1
+   },
+    "flops_profiler": {
+    "enabled": true,
+    "profile_step": 1,
+    "module_depth": -1,
+    "top_modules": 1,
+    "detailed": true,
+    "output_file": null
+  },
+  "train_batch_size": "auto",
+  "train_micro_batch_size_per_gpu": "auto",
+  "gradient_accumulation_steps": "auto",
+  "gradient_clipping": "auto",
+  "zero_allow_untested_optimizer": true
+}
+```
+
+## lora及Qlora高效微调
+<br />对大模型进行全量微调是一件昂贵的事情，我们可以使用高效微调的方法，通过给大模型添加额外参数，对新添加的参数进行微调进而改进大模型性能，如[lora](https://arxiv.org/abs/2106.09685)、[Qlora](https://arxiv.org/abs/2305.14314)高效微调方案。
+<br />lora本质上是一种重参数化方法，通过在参数矩阵添加旁支，来微调大模型性能。lora通过只在部分权重矩阵上添加旁支，来降低计算量；通过只更新旁支矩阵的参数，降低显存占用及并行通信量。
+<br />Qlora在lora的基础上将模型权重量化为4bit，并将scale参数再进行一次量化（double quant），以达到显存进一步节省的目的。需要注意的是Qlora相比于lora一般会添加更多的旁支矩阵，其并不能加速计算，反而会有效率上的损失。
+<br />使用fastchat可以通过如下方式非常方便对yuan2.0模型进行基于lora和Qlora的高效微调。
+- 使用train_lora.py脚本，torchrun --nproc_per_node=8 --master_port=XXXX fastchat/train/train_lora.py .....
+- 使用--lora_target_modules指定模型添加的lora模块，可以指定"q_proj",  "k_proj",  "v_proj",  "o_proj",  "gate_proj", "up_proj",  "down_proj"中的一个或多个，默认使用"q_proj", "v_proj"
+- 使用--lora_r指定lora矩阵的秩
+- 当指定--q_lora (True or False)指定是否使用Qlora进行高效微调<br />
+- 高效微调在进行多轮对话微调时loss计算方式与全量微调一致，可以使用yuan2.0定义的三种不同方式中的一种   
+高效微调参考脚本如下：
+```
+CUDA_VISIBLE_DEVICES=0 python  fastchat/train/train_lora.py \
+        --model_name_or_path  hf-to-yuan-path \
+        --trust_remote_code True\
+        --data_path ./data/alpaca-data-conversation.json \
+        --bf16 True \
+        --output_dir ./checkpoints_yuan2_2b_lora \
+        --num_train_epochs 3 \
+        --per_device_train_batch_size 1 \
+        --per_device_eval_batch_size 1 \
+        --gradient_accumulation_steps 16 \
+        --evaluation_strategy "no" \
+        --save_strategy "steps" \
+        --save_steps 1200 \
+        --save_total_limit 10 \
+        --learning_rate 2e-5 \
+        --weight_decay 0. \
+        --warmup_ratio 0.03 \
+        --lr_scheduler_type "cosine" \
+        --logging_steps 1 \
+        --model_max_length 512 \
+        --gradient_checkpointing True \
+        --lazy_preprocess True \
+        --q_lora True \
+        --efficient_loss False \
+        --split_example_loss True \
+        --last_response_loss False \
+
+
+```
+
+
+
+## 微调实测数据参考
+| 微调方案     |     序列长度      |    Model       |  精度：加载/计算    |   GPU | bs:micro/global |显存占用(1*GPU)|epoch耗时|
+| ------------| ----------------- | -------------  | ------------------ | ------|---------------- | ------ | -----|
+|  ds_zero2_full| 2048            |  Yuan-2 2B     | bf16/bf16          | 8*L20| 1/128           |16G     |1.68h|
+|  ds_zero3_lora| 2048            |  Yuan-2 51B    | bf16/bf16          | 8*L20| 1/128           |43G     |23h|
+|  ds_zero3_lora| 2048            |  Yuan-2 102B   | bf16/bf16          | 8*L20| 1/128           |45G     |47h|
+|  ds_zero2_full| 1024            |  Yuan-2 2B     | bf16/bf16          | 8*L20| 1/128           |15G     |1.3h|
+|  ds_zero3_lora| 1024            |  Yuan-2 51B    | bf16/bf16          | 8*L20| 1/128           |43G     |18h|
+|  ds_zero3_lora| 1024            |  Yuan-2 102B   | bf16/bf16          | 8*L20| 1/128           |42G     |40h|
+|  Qlora        | 1024            |  Yuan-2 2B     | int4/bf16          | 1*L20| 1/16            |4.5G    |3.4h|
+
+>以上测试使用52K条alpaca-samples，改造为单轮对话数据；epoch耗时为微调单个epoch的时间
+
+## 微调部署及使用
+
+基于yuan2.0微调完成的chat模型，使用fastchat可以非常方便的进行服务部署及使用。
+
+-  命令行方式
+```angular2html
+使用N个GPU部署chat模型
+python3 -m fastchat.serve.cli --model PATH-TO_CHATMODELS --num-gpus N
+```
+- WebGUI方式
+```angular2html
+python3 -m fastchat.serve.controller  --host 0.0.0.0 &
+python3 -m fastchat.serve.model_worker --model-path PATH-TO_CHATMODELS --host 0.0.0.0 &
+#--gpus 0,1,2,3 --num-gpus 4 指定使用4个GPU加载模型进行推理
+python3 -m fastchat.serve.gradio_web_server --host 0.0.0.0 --port 映射的IP端口号
+```
+- OpenAI-Compatible RESTful APIs
+
+关于安装`fastchat`及相关依赖，可以执行:
+```shell
+pip3 install "fschat[model_worker,webui]"
+pip3 install transformers==4.36.2 einops==0.7.0 gradio==3.50.2 gradio_client==0.6.1 pydantic==1.10.13
+```
+
+在正确安装完`fastchat`之后，可以参考[fastchat openai api启动脚本](../examples/fastchat_openai_server_engine.sh), 修改脚本里HOST、PORT、MODEL_PATH等内容：
+```shell
+CONTROLLER_HOST="0.0.0.0"
+CONTROLLER_PORT=8503
+
+MODEL_WORKER_HOST="0.0.0.0"
+MODEL_WORKER_PORT=8504
+
+API_SERVER_HOST="0.0.0.0"
+API_SERVER_PORT=8505
+
+MODEL_PATH="/mnt/models/Yuan2-2B-Mars-hf/"
+```
+启动完毕后，验证：
+```shell
+# cURL或者浏览器访问 http://<api_server_host>:<api_server_port>/v1/models 确保结果中有一个类似的模型：
+{
+    "object": "list",
+    "data": [
+        {
+            "id": "yuan2",
+            "object": "model",
+            "created": 1713955516,
+            "owned_by": "fastchat",
+            "root": "yuan2",
+            "parent": null,
+            "permission": [
+                {
+                    "id": "modelperm-KT7CstuH8yLHFWWiFzVpkd",
+                    "object": "model_permission",
+                    "created": 1713955516,
+                    "allow_create_engine": false,
+                    "allow_sampling": true,
+                    "allow_logprobs": true,
+                    "allow_search_indices": true,
+                    "allow_view": true,
+                    "allow_fine_tuning": false,
+                    "organization": "*",
+                    "group": null,
+                    "is_blocking": false
+                }
+            ]
+        }
+    ]
+}
+```
+使用`openai`客户端调用:
+```python
+from openai import OpenAI
+
+client = OpenAI(
+    api_key="EMPTY",
+    base_url="http://<api_server_host>:<api_server_port>/v1",
+)
+
+completion = client.chat.completions.create(
+    model="yuan2",
+    messages=[
+        {"role": "system", "content": "你是一个私人助手，能帮我解决很多问题。"},
+        {"role": "user", "content": "你好!"}
+    ]
+)
+
+print(completion.choices[0].message)
+
+# output
+# ChatCompletionMessage(content='你好！很高兴为你提供帮助。请问有什么我可以为你做的吗？', role='assistant', function_call=None, tool_calls=None)
+```
+>我们可以在[langchain](https://github.com/langchain-ai/langchain)中[使用OpenAI-Compatible RESTful APIs完成基于LLM的应用构建。](https://github.com/lm-sys/FastChat/blob/main/docs/langchain_integration.md)

docs/Yuan2_inference_guide_cn.md

+
+
+
+
+### <font color=#FFC125 >源2.0-102B 模型</font> 
+
+-----
+**本脚本为102B模型的快速使用指引，主要包括ckpt转换以及推理服务使用**
+### <strong>🔘 步骤 1</strong> 
+
+首先需要转换ckpt，我们提供的102B的模型文件是32路流水并行-1路张量并行（32pp，1tp）的模型文件，为了提高推理效率，需要将32路流水并行的模型文件转换为8路张量并行的模型文件（适用于80GB GPU），转换流程是：
+
+> （32路流水-1路张量）->（32路流水-8路张量）->（1路流水-8路张量）
+
+
+我们提供了自动转换脚本，可以依次执行完转换流程，使用方式如下：
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >A. 查看以下脚本： </font>**
+****
+```sh
+vim examples/ckpt_partitions_102B.sh 
+```
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >B. 修改环境变量： </font>**  
+
+
+- **<font color=#66CD00 >变量 1 </font>**：`LOAD_CHECKPOINT_PATH`，原始32路流水并行的模型文件路径，需要路径下面包含‘latest_checkpointed_iteration.txt’这个文件（文件在开源的模型文件中）
+
+
+```sh
+  LOAD_CHECKPOINT_PATH=/mnt/102B  # 变量1设置示例
+ ```
+
+
+-  **<font color=#66CD00 >变量 2 </font>**：`SAVE_SPLITED_CHECKPOINT_PATH`，表示转换产生的中间文件路径，主要作用于（32路流水-1路张量）->（32路流水-8路张量）产生的结果文件，等脚本完成转换之后可以删除该文件
+
+
+```sh
+  SAVE_SPLITED_CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-102B-mid # 变量2设置示例
+```
+
+
+- **<font color=#66CD00 >变量 3 </font>**：`SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH`，表示最终产生的8路张量并行的ckpt，主要作用于（32路流水-8路张量）->（1路流水-8路张量）产生的结果文件
+
+```sh
+  SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-102B-8tp # 变量3设置示例
+```
+
+
+如果在megatron主目录下面运行脚本，可以不修改TOKENIZER_MODEL_PATH=./tokenizer（因为github主目录下面包含tokenizer），否则需要指定tokenizer路径
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >C. 执行以下脚本： </font>**
+
+```sh
+bash examples/ckpt_partitions_102B.sh
+```
+
+在上述步骤完成后，会在 `SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH` 指定的目录下面生成一个8路张量并行的ckpt，可以用于推理服务。
+
+
+
+### <strong>🔘 步骤 2</strong> 
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >A. 修改环境变量： </font>**
+
+启动推理服务，需要在脚本 examples/run_inference_server_102B.sh 中修改环境变量CHECKPOINT_PATH：
+
+```sh
+vim examples/run_inference_server_102B.sh
+```
+修改环境变量 `CHECKPOINT_PATH` 为 **🔘 步骤 1** 中 `SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH` 指定的路径，例如：
+
+```sh
+SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-102B-8tp
+```
+需要指定 examples/run_inference_server_102B.sh 中 `CHECKPOINT_PATH`，例如：
+
+```sh
+CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-102B-8tp
+```
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >B. 启动推理服务： </font>**
+
+
+
+> **<font color=yellow >[注意] </font>**
+> <br />程序默认的端口号为 `8000` ，如果 `8000` 被占用，需要修改 examples/run_inference_server_102B.sh 中的环境变量 `PORT` 为实际使用的端口号
+
+```sh
+bash examples/run_inference_server_102B.sh
+```
+
+
+等待程序完成cpkt的加载并出现如下信息后，可以执行下一步调用推理服务：
+> successfully loaded checkpoint from ./ckpt-102B-8tp at iteration 1
+> <br />Serving Flask app 'megatron.text_generation_server'
+> <br />Debug mode: off
+> <br />WARNING: This is a development server. Do not use it in a production deployment. Use a production WSGI server instead.
+> <br />Running on all addresses (0.0.0.0)
+> <br />Running on http://127.0.0.1:8000 
+> <br />Running on http://127.0.0.1:8000
+
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >C. 调用推理服务： </font>**
+
+在相同docker中调用推理服务：
+
+> **<font color=yellow >[注意] </font>**
+> <br />程序默认的端口号为 `8000` ，如果 `8000` 被占用，请在 tools/start_inference_server_api.py 中替换`request_url="http://127.0.0.1:8000/yuan"` 的实际端口；
+
+
+```sh
+python tools/start_inference_server_api.py
+```
+运行成功后，会返回推理结果；
+
+
+
+
+### <font color=#FFC125 >源2.0-51B 模型 </font> 
+
+-----
+**本脚本为51B模型的快速使用指引，主要包括ckpt转换以及推理服务使用**
+
+### <strong>🔘 步骤 1</strong> 
+
+首先需要转换ckpt，我们提供的51B的模型文件是16路流水并行-1路张量并行（16pp，1tp）的模型文件，为了提高推理效率，需要将16路流水并行的模型文件转换为4路张量并行的模型文件（适用于80GB GPU），转换流程是：
+
+> （16路流水-1路张量）->（16路流水-4路张量）->（1路流水-4路张量）
+
+
+我们提供了自动转换脚本，可以依次执行完转换流程，使用方式如下：
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >A. 查看以下脚本： </font>**
+****
+```sh
+vim examples/ckpt_partitions_51B.sh
+```
+
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >B. 修改环境变量： </font>**  
+
+
+- **<font color=#66CD00 >变量 1 </font>**：`LOAD_CHECKPOINT_PATH`，原始16路流水并行的模型文件路径，需要路径下面包含latest_checkpointed_iteration.txt这个文件（这个文件会在开源的模型文件中）
+
+
+
+```sh
+  LOAD_CHECKPOINT_PATH=/mnt/51B # 变量1设置示例
+ ```
+
+
+-  **<font color=#66CD00 >变量 2 </font>**：`SAVE_SPLITED_CHECKPOINT_PATH`，表示转换产生的中间文件路径，主要作用于（16路流水-1路张量）->（16路流水-4路张量）产生的结果文件，等脚本完成转换之后可以删除该文件
+
+
+```sh
+  SAVE_SPLITED_CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-51B-mid # 变量2设置示例
+```
+
+
+- **<font color=#66CD00 >变量 3 </font>**：`SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH`，表示最终产生的4路张量并行的ckpt，主要作用于（16路流水-4路张量）->（1路流水-4路张量）产生的结果文件
+
+```sh
+  SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-51B-4tp # 变量3设置示例
+```
+
+如果在megatron主目录下面运行脚本，可以不修改TOKENIZER_MODEL_PATH=./tokenizer（因为github主目录下面包含tokenizer），否则需要指定tokenizer路径
+
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >C. 执行以下脚本： </font>**
+
+```sh
+bash examples/ckpt_partitions_51B.sh
+```
+
+在上述步骤完成后，会在 `SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH` 指定的目录下面生成一个4路张量并行的ckpt，可以用于推理服务。
+
+
+
+### <strong>🔘 步骤 2</strong> 
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >A. 修改环境变量： </font>**
+
+启动推理服务，需要在脚本 examples/run_inference_server_51B.sh 中修改环境变量CHECKPOINT_PATH：
+
+```sh
+vim examples/run_inference_server_51B.sh
+```
+修改环境变量 `CHECKPOINT_PATH` 为 **🔘 步骤 1** 中 `SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH` 指定的路径，例如：
+
+```sh
+SAVE_CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-51B-4tp
+```
+需要指定 examples/run_inference_server_51B.sh 中 `CHECKPOINT_PATH`，例如：
+
+```sh
+CHECKPOINT_PATH=./ckpt-51B-4tp
+```
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >B. 启动推理服务： </font>**
+
+
+
+> **<font color=yellow >[注意] </font>**
+> <br />程序默认的端口号为 `8000` ，如果 `8000` 被占用，需要修改 examples/run_inference_server_51B.sh 中的环境变量 `PORT` 为实际使用的端口号
+
+```sh
+bash examples/run_inference_server_51B.sh
+```
+
+
+等待程序完成cpkt的加载并出现如下信息后，可以执行下一步调用推理服务：
+> successfully loaded checkpoint from ./ckpt-51B-4tp at iteration 1
+> <br />Serving Flask app 'megatron.text_generation_server'
+> <br />Debug mode: off
+> <br />WARNING: This is a development server. Do not use it in a production deployment. Use a production WSGI server instead.
+> <br />Running on all addresses (0.0.0.0)
+> <br />Running on http://127.0.0.1:8000 
+> <br />Running on http://127.0.0.1:8000
+
+
+
+**<font color=#FFFFF0 >C. 调用推理服务： </font>**
+
+在相同docker中调用推理服务：
+
+> **<font color=yellow >[注意] </font>**
+> <br />程序默认的端口号为 `8000` ，如果 `8000` 被占用，请在 tools/start_inference_server_api.py 中替换`request_url="http://127.0.0.1:8000/yuan"` 的实际端口；
+
+
+```sh
+python tools/start_inference_server_api.py
+```
+运行成功后，会返回推理结果；

docs/Yuan2_llama-factory.md

+# 基于LLaMA Factory实现源2.0微调
+
+[llama-factory](https://github.com/hiyouga/LLaMA-Factory)是开源社区一款非常优秀的专门针对LLM做微调的框架。该项目支持业界主流的
+开源模型做微调，如chatGLM、llama、faclon、mistral、Qwen、yuan2.0等；通过使用huggingface [transformers](https://github.com/huggingface/transformers)支持基于deepspeed/fsdp的多节点多卡
+并行训练；支持SFT、RLHF、DPO等LLM微调过程；下述介绍使用llama-factory微调yuan2.0模型的流程。
+
+## 准备微调环境
+
+- docker pull nvcr.io/nvidia/pytorch:23.08-py3
+- docker run -v HOST_WORK_PATH:/workspace/ --ipc=host  --gpus all  --shm-size='64g' -it  nvcr.io/nvidia/pytorch:23.08-py3 /bin/bash
+- git  clone  https://github.com/hiyouga/LLaMA-Factory.git  
+- cd  LLaMA-Factory
+- pip  config  set  global.index-url  https://pypi.tuna.tsinghua.edu.cn/simple
+- pip  install  -r  requirements.txt  
+- pip  install  transformers_stream_generator  deepspeed "bitsandbytes>=0.39.0"
+
+## 准备模型及数据
+- 获取[yuan2.0](https://github.com/IEIT-Yuan/Yuan-2.0?tab=readme-ov-file#hugging-face%E7%89%88%E6%9C%AC-)  huggingface模型文件： 
+- 准备数据：<br />（1）自定义数据集时，使用[llama-factory](https://github.com/hiyouga/LLaMA-Factory/blob/main/data/README_zh.md)所要求的数据格式，如使用下述json格式的文件；将准备好的数据集信息(文件路径、文件哈希值等)
+添加进入llama-factory中的dataset_info.json。<br />（2）使用llama-factory中已有的数据集做微调，直接指定数据集名称不需要做其它修改，如--dataset alpca_en代表使用alpaca-data 52K 数据集。
+```
+[
+    {
+        "instruction":  "我们如何在日常生活中减少用水？",
+        "input":  "",
+        "output":  "1.  使用节水装置，如节水淋浴喷头和水龙头。  \n2.  使用水箱或水桶收集家庭废水，例如洗碗和洗浴。  \n3.  在社区中提高节水意识。  \n4.  检查水管和灌溉系统的漏水情况，并及时修复它们。  \n5.  洗澡时间缩短，使用低流量淋浴头节约用水。  \n6.  收集雨水，用于园艺或其他非饮用目的。  \n7.  刷牙或擦手时关掉水龙头。  \n8.  减少浇水草坪的时间。  \n9.  尽可能多地重复使用灰水（来自洗衣机、浴室水槽和淋浴的水）。  \n10.  只购买能源效率高的洗碗机和洗衣机。\n<eod>  "
+    },
+    {
+	...
+	}
+]
+```
+- 使用llama-factory 中定制的yuan模板
+
+```
+--template yuan
+```
+## 源2.0全量微调
+```
+deepspeed --num_gpus=8 src/train_bash.py \
+        --stage sft \
+        --model_name_or_path path-to-yuan-hf-model \
+        --do_train \
+        --dataset alpaca_en \
+        --finetuning_type full  \
+        --output_dir yuan2_2B_full_fintuning_checkpoint\
+        --overwrite_cache \
+        --per_device_train_batch_size 4 \
+        --per_device_eval_batch_size 4  \
+        --gradient_accumulation_steps 4  \
+        --preprocessing_num_workers 16 \
+        --lr_scheduler_type cosine \
+        --logging_steps 10    \
+        --save_steps 10000   \
+        --learning_rate 5e-5   \
+        --max_grad_norm 0.5     \
+        --num_train_epochs 3   \
+        --evaluation_strategy no  \
+        --bf16 \
+        --deepspeed ./zero2_ds_woloading.json \
+        --template yuan \
+        --overwrite_output_dir     \
+        --cutoff_len 2048\
+        --sft_packing   \
+        --gradient_checkpointing True 
+```
+ 
+> --stage 可以选择训练模型的方式，如sft代表有监督微调，rm代表奖励模型训练，dpo代表直接偏好优化等；<br />--finetuning_type 可以指定微调的类型如lora、full、freeze等；<br />--sft_packing  将多条样本
+进行拼接到固定长度，加速模型处理速度；<br />其余参数可以参考[llama-factory源码](https://github.com/hiyouga/LLaMA-Factory/tree/main/src/llmtuner/hparams)理解
+- zero2 config文件参考
+```
+{
+  "zero_optimization": {
+     "stage": 2,
+     "allgather_partitions": true,
+     "allgather_bucket_size": 5e8,
+     "reduce_scatter": true,
+     "reduce_bucket_size": 5e8,
+     "overlap_comm": false,
+     "contiguous_gradients": true
+  },
+   "bf16": {
+   "enabled": "auto",
+   "loss_scale": 0,
+   "initial_scale_power": 16,
+   "loss_scale_window": 1000,
+   "hysteresis": 2,
+   "min_loss_scale": 1
+   },
+    "flops_profiler": {
+    "enabled": true,
+    "profile_step": 1,
+    "module_depth": -1,
+    "top_modules": 1,
+    "detailed": true,
+    "output_file": null
+  },
+  "train_batch_size": "auto",
+  "train_micro_batch_size_per_gpu": "auto",
+  "gradient_accumulation_steps": "auto",
+  "gradient_clipping": "auto",
+  "zero_allow_untested_optimizer": true
+}
+```
+- 多机多卡微调示例
+<br />可以使用torchrun或deepspeed提交脚本，完成多机多卡的训练,以下为两个节点16卡的微调脚本，假设10.10.10.1为主节点
+```
+主节点：
+torchrun --nnodes 2 --node_rank 0 --nproc_per_node=8 --master-addr 10.10.10.1 --master_port 10086 src/train_bash.py \
+        --stage sft \
+       	--model_name_or_path ${model_paths}  \
+       	--do_train  \
+    	--dataset alpaca_en \
+       	--finetuning_type full  \
+       	--output_dir test_checkpoint \
+	    --overwrite_cache  \
+    	--per_device_train_batch_size 4 \
+	    --per_device_eval_batch_size 4 \
+	    --gradient_accumulation_steps 2 \
+	    --preprocessing_num_workers 16 \
+	    --lr_scheduler_type cosine \
+	    --logging_steps 10   \
+	    --save_steps 10000 \
+	    --learning_rate 5e-5 \
+	    --max_grad_norm 0.5 \
+	    --num_train_epochs 0.5 \
+	    --evaluation_strategy no \
+	    --gradient_checkpointing True \
+	    --plot_loss \
+	    --bf16 \
+	    --deepspeed ./playground/zero${stage}_ds_woloading.json \
+	    --template yuan \
+	    --overwrite_output_dir \
+	    --cutoff_len 2048 \
+	    --sft_packing 
+
+其它节点：
+torchrun --nnodes 2 --node_rank 1 --nproc_per_node=8 --master-addr 10.10.10.1 --master_port 10086 src/train_bash.py \
+        --stage sft \
+       	--model_name_or_path ${model_paths}  \
+       	--do_train  \
+    	--dataset alpaca_en \
+       	--finetuning_type full  \
+       	--output_dir test_checkpoint \
+	    --overwrite_cache  \
+    	--per_device_train_batch_size 4 \
+	    --per_device_eval_batch_size 4  \
+	    --gradient_accumulation_steps 2 \
+	    --preprocessing_num_workers 16 \
+	    --lr_scheduler_type cosine \
+	    --logging_steps 10   \
+	    --save_steps 10000 \
+	    --learning_rate 5e-5 \
+	    --max_grad_norm 0.5 \
+	    --num_train_epochs 0.5 \
+	    --evaluation_strategy no \
+	    --gradient_checkpointing True \
+	    --plot_loss \
+	    --bf16 \
+	    --deepspeed ./playground/zero${stage}_ds_woloading.json \
+	    --template yuan \
+	    --overwrite_output_dir \
+	    --cutoff_len 2048 \
+	    --sft_packing 
+
+也可以使用deepspeed来提交脚本：
+deepspeed  --include "10.10.10.1:6,7@10.10.10.2:6,7"  --master_addr 10.10.10.1 --master_port 10086 src/train_bash.py
+```
+
+## lora及Qlora高效微调
+<br />对大模型进行全量微调是一件昂贵的事情，我们可以使用高效微调的方法，通过给大模型添加额外参数，对新添加的参数进行微调进而改进大模型性能，如[lora](https://arxiv.org/abs/2106.09685)、[Qlora](https://arxiv.org/abs/2305.14314)高效微调方案。
+<br />lora本质上是一种重参数化方法，通过在参数矩阵添加旁支，来微调大模型性能。lora通过只在部分权重矩阵上添加旁支，来降低计算量；通过只更新旁支矩阵的参数，降低显存占用及并行通信量。
+<br />Qlora在lora的基础上将模型权重量化为4bit，并将scale参数再进行一次量化（double quant），以达到显存进一步节省的目的。需要注意的是Qlora相比于lora一般会添加更多的旁支矩阵，其并不能加速计算，反而会有效率上的损失。
+<br />使用llama-factory可以通过添加如下参数非常方便对yuan2.0模型进行基于lora和Qlora的高效微调。
+- finetuning_type  选择full做全量微调，选择lora做高效微调
+- 当选择lora时,--lora_target可指定"q_proj",  "k_proj",  "v_proj",  "o_proj",  "gate_proj", "up_proj",  "down_proj"
+- 当指定--quantization_bit  4或8 可以启动Qlora微调
+
+
+## 实测数据参考
+| 微调方案     |     序列长度      |    Model       |  精度：加载/计算    |   GPU | bs:micro/global |显存占用(1*GPU)|微调耗时                 |
+| ------------| ----------------- | -------------  | ------------------ | ------|---------------- | ------ | ----------------------------- |
+|  ds_zero2_full| 2048            |  Yuan-2 2B     | bf16/bf16          | 8*L40s| 4/128           |19G     |0.15h                          |
+|  ds_zero3_lora| 2048            |  Yuan-2 51B    | bf16/bf16          | 8*L40s| 1/128           |34G     |3.54h                          |
+|  ds_zero3_lora| 2048            |  Yuan-2 102B   | bf16/bf16          | 8*L40s| 1/128           |47G     |7h                             |
+|  Qlora        | 1024            |  Yuan-2 2B     | int4/bf16          | 1*L40s| 1/16            |4.5G    |1h                             |
+|  Qlora        | 1024            |  Yuan-2 51B    | int4/bf16          | 1*L40s| 1/16            |40G     |22h                            |
+
+>以上测试使用20K条samples微调3个epoch，原始的单条sample转换为tokens平均长度为167，packing到1024或2048
+
+## 硬件资源评估
+|Method |精度   |yuan2-2B |yuan2-51B  |yuan2-102B|
+| ------| ----- |-------- | --------- | -------- |
+|Full  |16 bit|40GB|1000GB|2000GB|
+|lora  |16 bit|7GB|120GB |230GB  |
+|Qlora |4 bit|5GB|40GB  |80GB   |
+
+
+## 视频及文档教程
+1. [快速上手！LLaMa-Factory最新微调实践，轻松实现专属大模型](https://blog.csdn.net/annawanglhong/article/details/135650112?csdn_share_tail=%7B%22type%22%3A%22blog%22%2C%22rType%22%3A%22article%22%2C%22rId%22%3A%22135650112%22%2C%22source%22%3A%22annawanglhong%22%7D)<br/>
+2. [step by step，yuan2.0模型微调演示demo](https://www.bilibili.com/video/BV1EK411e7GV/?spm_id_from=333.999.0.0&vd_source=7aacb5bd000901430425954763fb6b64)