[["Question: Anscombe criticizes as absurd Kant\u2019s idea of:\nChoices:\nA. the thing in itself.\nB. the categorical imperative.\nC. the phenomenal self.\nD. legislating for oneself.\nAnswer:"," the thing in itself."],["Question: Anscombe criticizes as absurd Kant\u2019s idea of:\nChoices:\nA. the thing in itself.\nB. the categorical imperative.\nC. the phenomenal self.\nD. legislating for oneself.\nAnswer:"," the categorical imperative."],["Question: Anscombe criticizes as absurd Kant\u2019s idea of:\nChoices:\nA. the thing in itself.\nB. the categorical imperative.\nC. the phenomenal self.\nD. legislating for oneself.\nAnswer:"," the phenomenal self."],["Question: Anscombe criticizes as absurd Kant\u2019s idea of:\nChoices:\nA. the thing in itself.\nB. the categorical imperative.\nC. the phenomenal self.\nD. legislating for oneself.\nAnswer:"," legislating for oneself."],["Question: According to Gauthier, the basis of morality is:\nChoices:\nA. maximizing the utility of all sentient beings.\nB. God\u2019s commands.\nC. the agreement of rational persons choosing the terms of their interaction.\nD. the purposive order of nature.\nAnswer:"," maximizing the utility of all sentient beings."],["Question: According to Gauthier, the basis of morality is:\nChoices:\nA. maximizing the utility of all sentient beings.\nB. God\u2019s commands.\nC. the agreement of rational persons choosing the terms of their interaction.\nD. the purposive order of nature.\nAnswer:"," God\u2019s commands."],["Question: According to Gauthier, the basis of morality is:\nChoices:\nA. maximizing the utility of all sentient beings.\nB. God\u2019s commands.\nC. the agreement of rational persons choosing the terms of their interaction.\nD. the purposive order of nature.\nAnswer:"," the agreement of rational persons choosing the terms of their interaction."],["Question: According to Gauthier, the basis of morality is:\nChoices:\nA. maximizing the utility of all sentient beings.\nB. God\u2019s commands.\nC. the agreement of rational persons choosing the terms of their interaction.\nD. the purposive order of nature.\nAnswer:"," the purposive order of nature."],["Question: Socrates tells Crito that he should attempt to break out of prison if and only if doing so would be:\nChoices:\nA. to his advantage.\nB. harmful to his enemies and advantageous to his friends.\nC. pleasing to the gods.\nD. just.\nAnswer:"," to his advantage."],["Question: Socrates tells Crito that he should attempt to break out of prison if and only if doing so would be:\nChoices:\nA. to his advantage.\nB. harmful to his enemies and advantageous to his friends.\nC. pleasing to the gods.\nD. just.\nAnswer:"," harmful to his enemies and advantageous to his friends."],["Question: Socrates tells Crito that he should attempt to break out of prison if and only if doing so would be:\nChoices:\nA. to his advantage.\nB. harmful to his enemies and advantageous to his friends.\nC. pleasing to the gods.\nD. just.\nAnswer:"," pleasing to the gods."],["Question: Socrates tells Crito that he should attempt to break out of prison if and only if doing so would be:\nChoices:\nA. to his advantage.\nB. harmful to his enemies and advantageous to his friends.\nC. pleasing to the gods.\nD. just.\nAnswer:"," just."],["Question: Stevenson\u2019s primary aim in this paper is to:\nChoices:\nA. provide an account of what makes right actions right.\nB. establish which things are good in themselves.\nC. develop a theory of good moral character.\nD. make ethical questions clear.\nAnswer:"," provide an account of what makes right actions right."],["Question: Stevenson\u2019s primary aim in this paper is to:\nChoices:\nA. provide an account of what makes right actions right.\nB. establish which things are good in themselves.\nC. develop a theory of good moral character.\nD. make ethical questions clear.\nAnswer:"," establish which things are good in themselves."],["Question: Stevenson\u2019s primary aim in this paper is to:\nChoices:\nA. provide an account of what makes right actions right.\nB. establish which things are good in themselves.\nC. develop a theory of good moral character.\nD. make ethical questions clear.\nAnswer:"," develop a theory of good moral character."],["Question: Stevenson\u2019s primary aim in this paper is to:\nChoices:\nA. provide an account of what makes right actions right.\nB. establish which things are good in themselves.\nC. develop a theory of good moral character.\nD. make ethical questions clear.\nAnswer:"," make ethical questions clear."],["Question: According to Feinberg, a good moral education:\nChoices:\nA. will make no use of pleasure or pain as sanctions.\nB. will be based entirely on the use of pleasure and pain as sanctions.\nC. will produce someone who does the right thing out of deference to authority.\nD. will produce someone who does the right thing simply because it is right.\nAnswer:"," will make no use of pleasure or pain as sanctions."],["Question: According to Feinberg, a good moral education:\nChoices:\nA. will make no use of pleasure or pain as sanctions.\nB. will be based entirely on the use of pleasure and pain as sanctions.\nC. will produce someone who does the right thing out of deference to authority.\nD. will produce someone who does the right thing simply because it is right.\nAnswer:"," will be based entirely on the use of pleasure and pain as sanctions."],["Question: According to Feinberg, a good moral education:\nChoices:\nA. will make no use of pleasure or pain as sanctions.\nB. will be based entirely on the use of pleasure and pain as sanctions.\nC. will produce someone who does the right thing out of deference to authority.\nD. will produce someone who does the right thing simply because it is right.\nAnswer:"," will produce someone who does the right thing out of deference to authority."],["Question: According to Feinberg, a good moral education:\nChoices:\nA. will make no use of pleasure or pain as sanctions.\nB. will be based entirely on the use of pleasure and pain as sanctions.\nC. will produce someone who does the right thing out of deference to authority.\nD. will produce someone who does the right thing simply because it is right.\nAnswer:"," will produce someone who does the right thing simply because it is right."],["Question: According to Sartre, the first principle of existentialism is that _____.\nChoices:\nA. God is dead\nB. man is all-powerful\nC. man is nothing else but what he makes of himself\nD. man is nothing\nAnswer:"," God is dead"],["Question: According to Sartre, the first principle of existentialism is that _____.\nChoices:\nA. God is dead\nB. man is all-powerful\nC. man is nothing else but what he makes of himself\nD. man is nothing\nAnswer:"," man is all-powerful"],["Question: According to Sartre, the first principle of existentialism is that _____.\nChoices:\nA. God is dead\nB. man is all-powerful\nC. man is nothing else but what he makes of himself\nD. man is nothing\nAnswer:"," man is nothing else but what he makes of himself"],["Question: According to Sartre, the first principle of existentialism is that _____.\nChoices:\nA. God is dead\nB. man is all-powerful\nC. man is nothing else but what he makes of himself\nD. man is nothing\nAnswer:"," man is nothing"],["Question: By \u201canimal motion,\u201d Hobbes means:\nChoices:\nA. involuntary operations such as heartbeat and breathing.\nB. instinctive behavior, such as nursing young.\nC. irrational behavior.\nD. all voluntary behavior.\nAnswer:"," involuntary operations such as heartbeat and breathing."],["Question: By \u201canimal motion,\u201d Hobbes means:\nChoices:\nA. involuntary operations such as heartbeat and breathing.\nB. instinctive behavior, such as nursing young.\nC. irrational behavior.\nD. all voluntary behavior.\nAnswer:"," instinctive behavior, such as nursing young."],["Question: By \u201canimal motion,\u201d Hobbes means:\nChoices:\nA. involuntary operations such as heartbeat and breathing.\nB. instinctive behavior, such as nursing young.\nC. irrational behavior.\nD. all voluntary behavior.\nAnswer:"," irrational behavior."],["Question: By \u201canimal motion,\u201d Hobbes means:\nChoices:\nA. involuntary operations such as heartbeat and breathing.\nB. instinctive behavior, such as nursing young.\nC. irrational behavior.\nD. all voluntary behavior.\nAnswer:"," all voluntary behavior."],["Question: Anscombe claims that on Sidgwick\u2019s view, the badness of an action must be estimated in light of:\nChoices:\nA. its actual consequences.\nB. its expected consequences.\nC. whether it violates any duties.\nD. whether it violates divine law.\nAnswer:"," its actual consequences."],["Question: Anscombe claims that on Sidgwick\u2019s view, the badness of an action must be estimated in light of:\nChoices:\nA. its actual consequences.\nB. its expected consequences.\nC. whether it violates any duties.\nD. whether it violates divine law.\nAnswer:"," its expected consequences."],["Question: Anscombe claims that on Sidgwick\u2019s view, the badness of an action must be estimated in light of:\nChoices:\nA. its actual consequences.\nB. its expected consequences.\nC. whether it violates any duties.\nD. whether it violates divine law.\nAnswer:"," whether it violates any duties."],["Question: Anscombe claims that on Sidgwick\u2019s view, the badness of an action must be estimated in light of:\nChoices:\nA. its actual consequences.\nB. its expected consequences.\nC. whether it violates any duties.\nD. whether it violates divine law.\nAnswer:"," whether it violates divine law."],["Question: According to Parfit, the obligation to give priority to the welfare of one\u2019s children is:\nChoices:\nA. agent-relative.\nB. agent-neutral.\nC. absolute.\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," agent-relative."],["Question: According to Parfit, the obligation to give priority to the welfare of one\u2019s children is:\nChoices:\nA. agent-relative.\nB. agent-neutral.\nC. absolute.\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," agent-neutral."],["Question: According to Parfit, the obligation to give priority to the welfare of one\u2019s children is:\nChoices:\nA. agent-relative.\nB. agent-neutral.\nC. absolute.\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," absolute."],["Question: According to Parfit, the obligation to give priority to the welfare of one\u2019s children is:\nChoices:\nA. agent-relative.\nB. agent-neutral.\nC. absolute.\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," none of the above."],["Question: According to Moore, \u201cpleasure is good\u201d means the same thing as:\nChoices:\nA. \u201cpleasure is desired.\u201d\nB. \u201cpleasure is pleasant.\u201d\nC. \u201cwe desire to desire pleasure.\u201d\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," \u201cpleasure is desired.\u201d"],["Question: According to Moore, \u201cpleasure is good\u201d means the same thing as:\nChoices:\nA. \u201cpleasure is desired.\u201d\nB. \u201cpleasure is pleasant.\u201d\nC. \u201cwe desire to desire pleasure.\u201d\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," \u201cpleasure is pleasant.\u201d"],["Question: According to Moore, \u201cpleasure is good\u201d means the same thing as:\nChoices:\nA. \u201cpleasure is desired.\u201d\nB. \u201cpleasure is pleasant.\u201d\nC. \u201cwe desire to desire pleasure.\u201d\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," \u201cwe desire to desire pleasure.\u201d"],["Question: According to Moore, \u201cpleasure is good\u201d means the same thing as:\nChoices:\nA. \u201cpleasure is desired.\u201d\nB. \u201cpleasure is pleasant.\u201d\nC. \u201cwe desire to desire pleasure.\u201d\nD. none of the above.\nAnswer:"," none of the above."]]
[["Question: Archaeological evidence indicates that cattle were first domesticated where and how long ago?\nChoices:\nA. in western Europe, about 3,500 years ago\nB. in sub-Saharan Africa, about 8,500 years ago\nC. in North America, about 9,500 years ago\nD. in the Middle East, about 10,500 years ago\nAnswer:"," in western Europe, about 3,500 years ago"],["Question: Archaeological evidence indicates that cattle were first domesticated where and how long ago?\nChoices:\nA. in western Europe, about 3,500 years ago\nB. in sub-Saharan Africa, about 8,500 years ago\nC. in North America, about 9,500 years ago\nD. in the Middle East, about 10,500 years ago\nAnswer:"," in sub-Saharan Africa, about 8,500 years ago"],["Question: Archaeological evidence indicates that cattle were first domesticated where and how long ago?\nChoices:\nA. in western Europe, about 3,500 years ago\nB. in sub-Saharan Africa, about 8,500 years ago\nC. in North America, about 9,500 years ago\nD. in the Middle East, about 10,500 years ago\nAnswer:"," in North America, about 9,500 years ago"],["Question: Archaeological evidence indicates that cattle were first domesticated where and how long ago?\nChoices:\nA. in western Europe, about 3,500 years ago\nB. in sub-Saharan Africa, about 8,500 years ago\nC. in North America, about 9,500 years ago\nD. in the Middle East, about 10,500 years ago\nAnswer:"," in the Middle East, about 10,500 years ago"],["Question: Which tool technology is associated with anatomically modern Homo sapiens?\nChoices:\nA. Aurignacian\nB. Acheulean\nC. Mousterian\nD. both b and c\nAnswer:"," Aurignacian"],["Question: Which tool technology is associated with anatomically modern Homo sapiens?\nChoices:\nA. Aurignacian\nB. Acheulean\nC. Mousterian\nD. both b and c\nAnswer:"," Acheulean"],["Question: Which tool technology is associated with anatomically modern Homo sapiens?\nChoices:\nA. Aurignacian\nB. Acheulean\nC. Mousterian\nD. both b and c\nAnswer:"," Mousterian"],["Question: Which tool technology is associated with anatomically modern Homo sapiens?\nChoices:\nA. Aurignacian\nB. Acheulean\nC. Mousterian\nD. both b and c\nAnswer:"," both b and c"],["Question: Which best describes Stonehenge?\nChoices:\nA. Megalithic monument\nB. Halafian monumental center\nC. Chavin ritual monument\nD. Mesopotamian monument\nAnswer:"," Megalithic monument"],["Question: Which best describes Stonehenge?\nChoices:\nA. Megalithic monument\nB. Halafian monumental center\nC. Chavin ritual monument\nD. Mesopotamian monument\nAnswer:"," Halafian monumental center"],["Question: Which best describes Stonehenge?\nChoices:\nA. Megalithic monument\nB. Halafian monumental center\nC. Chavin ritual monument\nD. Mesopotamian monument\nAnswer:"," Chavin ritual monument"],["Question: Which best describes Stonehenge?\nChoices:\nA. Megalithic monument\nB. Halafian monumental center\nC. Chavin ritual monument\nD. Mesopotamian monument\nAnswer:"," Mesopotamian monument"],["Question: Machu Picchu was built in the mountains as a:\nChoices:\nA. defensive stronghold.\nB. shrine to the Inca rain god.\nC. relaxing getaway for elites.\nD. astronomical observatory.\nAnswer:"," defensive stronghold."],["Question: Machu Picchu was built in the mountains as a:\nChoices:\nA. defensive stronghold.\nB. shrine to the Inca rain god.\nC. relaxing getaway for elites.\nD. astronomical observatory.\nAnswer:"," shrine to the Inca rain god."],["Question: Machu Picchu was built in the mountains as a:\nChoices:\nA. defensive stronghold.\nB. shrine to the Inca rain god.\nC. relaxing getaway for elites.\nD. astronomical observatory.\nAnswer:"," relaxing getaway for elites."],["Question: Machu Picchu was built in the mountains as a:\nChoices:\nA. defensive stronghold.\nB. shrine to the Inca rain god.\nC. relaxing getaway for elites.\nD. astronomical observatory.\nAnswer:"," astronomical observatory."],["Question: The origins of Chinese civilization can be traced to:\nChoices:\nA. the site of An-yang near the Huang ho River.\nB. chiefdoms and states in numerous regions throughout China.\nC. the beginning of the Qin Dynasty.\nD. external influences originating from the Indus Valley.\nAnswer:"," the site of An-yang near the Huang ho River."],["Question: The origins of Chinese civilization can be traced to:\nChoices:\nA. the site of An-yang near the Huang ho River.\nB. chiefdoms and states in numerous regions throughout China.\nC. the beginning of the Qin Dynasty.\nD. external influences originating from the Indus Valley.\nAnswer:"," chiefdoms and states in numerous regions throughout China."],["Question: The origins of Chinese civilization can be traced to:\nChoices:\nA. the site of An-yang near the Huang ho River.\nB. chiefdoms and states in numerous regions throughout China.\nC. the beginning of the Qin Dynasty.\nD. external influences originating from the Indus Valley.\nAnswer:"," the beginning of the Qin Dynasty."],["Question: The origins of Chinese civilization can be traced to:\nChoices:\nA. the site of An-yang near the Huang ho River.\nB. chiefdoms and states in numerous regions throughout China.\nC. the beginning of the Qin Dynasty.\nD. external influences originating from the Indus Valley.\nAnswer:"," external influences originating from the Indus Valley."],["Question: The attitude of many ancient elites toward the consumption of resources seems to have been:\nChoices:\nA. \u201ca penny saved is a penny earned.\"\nB. \"if you've got it, flaunt it.\"\nC. \"look before you leap.\"\nD. \"the last shall be first and the first shall be last.\"\nAnswer:"," \u201ca penny saved is a penny earned.\""],["Question: The attitude of many ancient elites toward the consumption of resources seems to have been:\nChoices:\nA. \u201ca penny saved is a penny earned.\"\nB. \"if you've got it, flaunt it.\"\nC. \"look before you leap.\"\nD. \"the last shall be first and the first shall be last.\"\nAnswer:"," \"if you've got it, flaunt it.\""],["Question: The attitude of many ancient elites toward the consumption of resources seems to have been:\nChoices:\nA. \u201ca penny saved is a penny earned.\"\nB. \"if you've got it, flaunt it.\"\nC. \"look before you leap.\"\nD. \"the last shall be first and the first shall be last.\"\nAnswer:"," \"look before you leap.\""],["Question: The attitude of many ancient elites toward the consumption of resources seems to have been:\nChoices:\nA. \u201ca penny saved is a penny earned.\"\nB. \"if you've got it, flaunt it.\"\nC. \"look before you leap.\"\nD. \"the last shall be first and the first shall be last.\"\nAnswer:"," \"the last shall be first and the first shall be last.\""],["Question: The construction of large-scale features, such as mounds and shell middens, is often taken by archaeologists as evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. the practice of slavery.\nB. social and political complexity.\nC. a Mesolithic tradition.\nD. the shift from Paleolithic to Neolithic.\nAnswer:"," the practice of slavery."],["Question: The construction of large-scale features, such as mounds and shell middens, is often taken by archaeologists as evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. the practice of slavery.\nB. social and political complexity.\nC. a Mesolithic tradition.\nD. the shift from Paleolithic to Neolithic.\nAnswer:"," social and political complexity."],["Question: The construction of large-scale features, such as mounds and shell middens, is often taken by archaeologists as evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. the practice of slavery.\nB. social and political complexity.\nC. a Mesolithic tradition.\nD. the shift from Paleolithic to Neolithic.\nAnswer:"," a Mesolithic tradition."],["Question: The construction of large-scale features, such as mounds and shell middens, is often taken by archaeologists as evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. the practice of slavery.\nB. social and political complexity.\nC. a Mesolithic tradition.\nD. the shift from Paleolithic to Neolithic.\nAnswer:"," the shift from Paleolithic to Neolithic."],["Question: The sophisticated stone tool making industry at the Pinnacle Point site in South Africa is evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. a 250,000-year-old tradition of hand axe production and use.\nB. a 71,000-year-old complex sequence of microblade production and use.\nC. an adaptation to hunting in colder environments.\nD. both a and c.\nAnswer:"," a 250,000-year-old tradition of hand axe production and use."],["Question: The sophisticated stone tool making industry at the Pinnacle Point site in South Africa is evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. a 250,000-year-old tradition of hand axe production and use.\nB. a 71,000-year-old complex sequence of microblade production and use.\nC. an adaptation to hunting in colder environments.\nD. both a and c.\nAnswer:"," a 71,000-year-old complex sequence of microblade production and use."],["Question: The sophisticated stone tool making industry at the Pinnacle Point site in South Africa is evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. a 250,000-year-old tradition of hand axe production and use.\nB. a 71,000-year-old complex sequence of microblade production and use.\nC. an adaptation to hunting in colder environments.\nD. both a and c.\nAnswer:"," an adaptation to hunting in colder environments."],["Question: The sophisticated stone tool making industry at the Pinnacle Point site in South Africa is evidence of:\nChoices:\nA. a 250,000-year-old tradition of hand axe production and use.\nB. a 71,000-year-old complex sequence of microblade production and use.\nC. an adaptation to hunting in colder environments.\nD. both a and c.\nAnswer:"," both a and c."],["Question: Interestingly, none of the civilizations of ancient South America appear to have developed:\nChoices:\nA. monumental works.\nB. irrigation technology.\nC. a written language.\nD. significant armies.\nAnswer:"," monumental works."],["Question: Interestingly, none of the civilizations of ancient South America appear to have developed:\nChoices:\nA. monumental works.\nB. irrigation technology.\nC. a written language.\nD. significant armies.\nAnswer:"," irrigation technology."],["Question: Interestingly, none of the civilizations of ancient South America appear to have developed:\nChoices:\nA. monumental works.\nB. irrigation technology.\nC. a written language.\nD. significant armies.\nAnswer:"," a written language."],["Question: Interestingly, none of the civilizations of ancient South America appear to have developed:\nChoices:\nA. monumental works.\nB. irrigation technology.\nC. a written language.\nD. significant armies.\nAnswer:"," significant armies."],["Question: That modern Africans do not possess any Neandertal DNA indicates that:\nChoices:\nA. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans must have occurred before Neandertals migrated out of Africa.\nB. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans occurred after anatomically modern humans migrated out of Africa.\nC. Neandertals who lived in Africa did not interbreed with anatomically modern humans, but must have followed them when they migrated out of Africa.\nD. Interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals never occurred.\nAnswer:"," Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans must have occurred before Neandertals migrated out of Africa."],["Question: That modern Africans do not possess any Neandertal DNA indicates that:\nChoices:\nA. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans must have occurred before Neandertals migrated out of Africa.\nB. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans occurred after anatomically modern humans migrated out of Africa.\nC. Neandertals who lived in Africa did not interbreed with anatomically modern humans, but must have followed them when they migrated out of Africa.\nD. Interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals never occurred.\nAnswer:"," Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans occurred after anatomically modern humans migrated out of Africa."],["Question: That modern Africans do not possess any Neandertal DNA indicates that:\nChoices:\nA. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans must have occurred before Neandertals migrated out of Africa.\nB. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans occurred after anatomically modern humans migrated out of Africa.\nC. Neandertals who lived in Africa did not interbreed with anatomically modern humans, but must have followed them when they migrated out of Africa.\nD. Interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals never occurred.\nAnswer:"," Neandertals who lived in Africa did not interbreed with anatomically modern humans, but must have followed them when they migrated out of Africa."],["Question: That modern Africans do not possess any Neandertal DNA indicates that:\nChoices:\nA. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans must have occurred before Neandertals migrated out of Africa.\nB. Gene flow between Neandertals and anatomically modern humans occurred after anatomically modern humans migrated out of Africa.\nC. Neandertals who lived in Africa did not interbreed with anatomically modern humans, but must have followed them when they migrated out of Africa.\nD. Interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals never occurred.\nAnswer:"," Interbreeding between anatomically modern humans and Neandertals never occurred."]]
[["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances."],["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee."],["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk."],["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties."],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," $0"],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," $20,000"],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," $40,000"],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," 800000"],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Governmental fund financial statements."],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Government-wide financial statements."],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Proprietary fund financial statements."],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Fiduciary fund financial statements."],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," $23.22"],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," $21.40"],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," $20.90"],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," 15.4"],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets."],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements."],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us."],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us."],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," \u2212$3"],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," \u2212$27"],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," $3"],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," $500"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," $0"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," $25,000"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," $40,000"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," 65000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $28,000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $132,000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $160,000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $188,000"],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance."],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $60000 debit to insurance expense."],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings."],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Voting rights."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Guaranteed dividends."]]
[["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale."],["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant."],["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance."],["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity."],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," nothing."],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," $10,000. 00"],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house."],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," $15,000. 00"]]
[["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Internal iliac"],["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Popliteal"],["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Sacral"],["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Superficial inguinal"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Fatty acid oxidation"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Fatty acid synthesis"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Gluconeogenesis"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Glycogenolysis"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Ultrasonography"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Aortic valve insufficiency"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Aortic valve stenosis"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Mitral valve insufficiency"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Mitral valve stenosis"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Acyclovir"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Imiquimod"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Levofloxacin"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Metronidazole"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Bedside compartment pressure measurements"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Intraoperative angiography"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Projection"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Projective identification"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Reaction formation"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Splitting"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Osmotic diuretic"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Reassurance"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Assess for suicidal ideation"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Begin dextroamphetamine therapy"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Increase oxycodone dosage"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Chest x-ray"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Fexofenadine therapy"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Increased use of the albuterol inhaler"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler"]]
[["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population"],["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision"],["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level"],["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," ethical"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," unethical"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," medulla oblongara"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," corpus callosum"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," parietal cortex"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," pons"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 12 years"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 3-6 years"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 7-12 years"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 13-18 years"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," reticular formation"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," cerebellum"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," thalamus"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," parietal lobe"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Send the records as requested"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Tolerance"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Withdrawal"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Legal problems"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Lying"],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," causes over-reliance on statistical data."],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," doesn't take base rate data into account."],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior."],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory."]]
[["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Inputs"],["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Outputs"],["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Outtakes"],["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Outcomes"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," ingratiation"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," downplaying"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," distancing"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," nonexistence"],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness."],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product."],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product."],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels."],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They offer flexibility of talents and skills."],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They bring greater credibility to the work. "],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They will provide sound ROI on the project or program."],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems."],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Circulation"],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Distribution"],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Traffic"],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Readership"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Clients' questions about costs"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Resistance to outside advice"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Personality conflicts"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," One-quarter"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," One-half"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," Two thirds"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," Almost all"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Representing clients using new social media environments"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Training staff to use social media"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Staying abreast of changing technology"]]
