[["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances."],["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee."],["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk."],["Question: Which of the following procedures does a CPA usually perform when reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer?\nChoices:\nA. Make inquiries of management concerning restrictions on the availability of cash balances.\nB. Communicate deficiencies in the design of internal control to the entity's audit committee.\nC. Examine trend analysis to determine the appropriateness of the CPA's assessment of detection risk.\nD. Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties.\nAnswer:"," Evaluate management's plans for dealing with negative trends and financial difficulties."],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," $0"],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," $20,000"],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," $40,000"],["Question: Large City does not use the modified approach to account for roads. At the beginning of the current year the city spent $800000 on new roads. The roads have a 20-year useful life. What amount should Large City report as an expense related to the new roads in the statement of activities for the current year?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $20,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 800000\nAnswer:"," 800000"],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Governmental fund financial statements."],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Government-wide financial statements."],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Proprietary fund financial statements."],["Question: A government entity is required to include a statement of cash flows in which of the following financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. Governmental fund financial statements.\nB. Government-wide financial statements.\nC. Proprietary fund financial statements.\nD. Fiduciary fund financial statements.\nAnswer:"," Fiduciary fund financial statements."],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," $23.22"],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," $21.40"],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," $20.90"],["Question: A company that produces a single product using a continuous process had no work in process on April 1. During the month of April 10000 units were started and 9000 completed units were transferred. The ending work-in-process inventory was complete as to materials and 50% complete as to conversion. The cost of direct materials was $114000 and the cost of direct labor amounted to $38000. Manufacturing overhead is assigned at the rate of 50% of direct materials. For the purpose of determining the cost of goods manufactured in April what is the cost per equivalent whole unit?\nChoices:\nA. $23.22\nB. $21.40\nC. $20.90\nD. 15.4\nAnswer:"," 15.4"],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets."],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements."],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us."],["Question: Which of the following statements would most likely appear in an auditor's engagement letter?\nChoices:\nA. Management is responsible for reporting to us any inadequate provisions for the safeguarding of assets.\nB. We will identify internal controls relevant to specific assertions that may prevent or detect material misstatements.\nC. Management agrees to correct all deficiencies in internal control activities identified by us.\nD. Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us.\nAnswer:"," Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us."],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," \u2212$3"],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," \u2212$27"],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," $3"],["Question: An investment project costing $500 today will generate profits of $500 in year five and year ten. If the discount rate is 10%, what is the project\u2019s NPV?\nChoices:\nA. \u2212$3\nB. \u2212$27\nC. $3\nD. $500\nAnswer:"," $500"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," $0"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," $25,000"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," $40,000"],["Question: Mentor Co. a U.S. corporation owned 100% of a Swiss corporation. The Swiss franc is the functional currency. The remeasurement of Mentor's financial statements resulted in a $25000 gain at year end. The translation of the financial statements resulted in a $40000 gain at year end. What amount should Mentor recognize as foreign currency gain in its income statement?\nChoices:\nA. $0\nB. $25,000\nC. $40,000\nD. 65000\nAnswer:"," 65000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $28,000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $132,000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $160,000"],["Question: Carson owned 40% of the outstanding stock of a C corporation. During a tax year, the corporation reported $400,000 in taxable income and distributed a total of $70,000 in cash dividends to its shareholders. Carson accurately reported $28,000 in gross income on Carson\u2019s individual tax return. If the corporation had been an S corporation and the distributions to the owners had been proportionate, how much income would Carson have reported on Carson\u2019s individual return?\nChoices:\nA. $28,000\nB. $132,000\nC. $160,000\nD. $188,000\nAnswer:"," $188,000"],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance."],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $60000 debit to insurance expense."],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings."],["Question: Bailey Co. changed the accounting for insurance expense from the cash basis to the accrual basis in the current year. In January of the prior year Bailey recorded insurance expense of $240000 for the cash purchase of a four-year insurance policy. How should Bailey report the insurance transaction in the current year's financial statements?\nChoices:\nA. As a $180000 debit to prepaid insurance.\nB. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense.\nC. As a $60000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 debit to prepaid asset and $180000 credit to retained earnings.\nD. As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings.\nAnswer:"," As a $180000 debit to insurance expense a $120000 credit to prepaid asset and $60000 credit to retained earnings."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Voting rights."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid."],["Question: To which of the following rights is a holder of a public corporation's cumulative preferred stock always entitled?\nChoices:\nA. Conversion of the preferred stock into common stock.\nB. Voting rights.\nC. Dividend carryovers from years in which dividends were not paid.\nD. Guaranteed dividends.\nAnswer:"," Guaranteed dividends."]]
[["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale."],["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant."],["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance."],["Question: The owner of a large unimproved tract of land leased it to a tenant for five years at a monthly rental of $1,500. The rental agreement provided that the land was to be used as farmland. Shortly after the tenant took possession of the tract of land, he built thereon, at his own expense, a barn made of lumber, which was 15 feet wide, 20 feet long, and set on loose bricks. The barn increased the appraised market value of the tract of land from $250,000 to $275,000. The tenant then began farming operations on the land. Toward the end of the lease period, the owner informed the tenant that he was going to put the tract of land up for sale. The next month, when the lease expired, the parties settled a dispute over the tenant's right, if any, to compensation for the improvements by the following written agreement:\"On the sale of the tract of land, the owner hereby agrees to pay the tenant two-thirds of any sale proceeds in excess of $250,000, provided that tenant may remain on the farm for the next year, rent-free, while the owner tries to sell it. After that time, the tenant may remain on the land until closing of the sale, at a monthly rental of $1,000. \"The owner initially set the asking price at $300,000. After receiving scant interest, the owner decided to reduce the price to $260,000. This price reduction so infuriated the tenant that he thereafter made negative comments about the farm to all of the prospective buyers. Finally, 14 months after the agreement between the owner and the tenant was executed, and after rejecting offers for $240,000 and $250,000, the owner sold the tract of land for $256,000 to a buyer who visited the land while the tenant was away on vacation. Thereupon, the tenant, who had failed to pay the last two months rent as per the agreement, moved out. After closing, the owner refused to pay the tenant any of the sale proceeds, and the tenant brought suit to recover damages for breach of contract. Which of the following is the owner's most persuasive argument in defense of the tenant's suit?\nChoices:\nA. The tenant committed an uncured material breach of an implied promise to cooperate in the owner's efforts to sell the property, or at least not to hinder the proposed sale.\nB. The tenant's negative comments about the farm to prospective buyers amounted to an anticipatory repudiation of the agreement between the owner and the tenant.\nC. The tenant's failure to pay any rent for the last two months was a material breach of contract that discharged the owner's remaining duties of performance.\nD. The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract.\nAnswer:"," The agreement between the owner and the tenant was voidable because it was a restraint on alienation, since it conditioned a promise to pay for a conveyance of land upon an otherwise invalid leasehold contract."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years."],["Question: A man was in jail after being arrested for burglary. When the police attempted to question him, the man invoked his Miranda rights and refused to answer any questions. The man was subsequently tried, convicted, and sentenced to a prison term for the burglary. Three years later, while the man was serving his prison sentence for the burglary, a police detective from a nearby town questioned him about an unsolved homicide. The detective did not know that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. that the man had invoked Miranda at an earlier time. The man waived his Miranda rights and made several incriminating statements to the detective. When he was later charged with the homicide, the man moved to suppress these statements, claiming that his earlier refusal to waive his Miranda rights should have been honored. Should the court suppress the statements?\nChoices:\nA. No, because the detective was unaware that the man had originally invoked his Miranda rights.\nB. No, because the man's prior invocation of his Miranda rights did not preclude the later interrogation.\nC. Yes, because the man had earlier invoked his Miranda rights, and the police were not permitted to resume questioning, even after a time lapse of years.\nD. Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released.\nAnswer:"," Yes, because the man was incarcerated, and his earlier invocation of his Miranda rights shielded him from further questioning until shielded him from further questioning until he was released."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title."],["Question: A woman acquired land by a deed that contained the following language in the grantee section: \"to [the woman], her heirs and assigns, provided, however, that said grantee may not transfer any interest in the land for 10 years from the date of this instrument.\" Two years later, the woman contracted to sell the land to an investor for a price based on a recent appraisal. When the investor's title search revealed the above language in the grantee section of the deed to the woman, the investor refused to close the transaction. The contract was silent as to the woman's title obligation. The woman has sued the investor for specific performance. Who is likely to prevail?\nChoices:\nA. The investor, because the woman cannot sell the land during the 10-year period specified in the deed.\nB. The investor, because the woman's heirs did not join in the contract.\nC. The woman, because the contract did not obligate her to provide marketable title.\nD. The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law.\nAnswer:"," The woman, because the deed's restraint on transfer is void as a matter of law."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence."],["Question: In an action for malpractice, a plaintiff sued a doctor, claiming that the latter failed to properly diagnose his emphysema condition. The plaintiff contends that he went to the doctor for a medical examination after experiencing chest pains and shortness of breath. However, the doctor found no evidence of the disease and advised him that he was probably suffering from indigestion. Thereafter, the plaintiff was examined by another doctor who discovered that the plaintiff in fact was suffering from a chronic case of emphysema. At trial, the plaintiff calls the other doctor as his first witness. The other doctor proposes to testify the x-rays of the plaintiff's lungs showed that his respiratory organs were marked by distension, which was characteristic of emphysema. Upon objection by the defendant's attorney, the testimony should be\nChoices:\nA. admitted, because a doctor is properly qualified as an expert in medical matters.\nB. admitted, because the other doctor followed accepted medical practice in arriving at his opinion.\nC. excluded, because his opinion is based upon facts not in evidence.\nD. excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs.\nAnswer:"," excluded, because the x-rays are the best evidence to show the distension of the plaintiff's lungs."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death."],["Question: A patient was admitted to a hospital. He had driven his car despite being intoxicated. As a result, he crashed the car into a tree and suffered a broken nose. After a doctor reset the broken nose, the patient was transferred to a room in the west wing of the hospital. In extreme pain, the patient asked the nurse for a painkiller. Without seeking the doctor's approval, the nurse administered an injection of morphine, which the nurse should have known to be an excessive dosage. The patient died an hour after the injection; the cause of death was a morphine overdose. The nurse's injection of morphine to this patient would most likely constitute\nChoices:\nA. a cause-in-fact, but not a legal cause of the patient's death.\nB. a legal cause, but not a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nC. a cause-in-fact and a legal cause of the patient's death.\nD. neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death.\nAnswer:"," neither a legal cause nor a cause-in-fact of the patient's death."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded."],["Question: In which of the following situations would the defendant not be guilty of homicide?\nChoices:\nA. A defendant came into a bar looking for a fight. He walked up to a victim, tapped him on the shoulder and said, \"You bother me. Get out of here. \" The victim ignored him, and the defendant proceeded to punch the victim in the face and stab him in the arm with a knife. The victim thereupon took out a knife that had been concealed in his pocket and stabbed the defendant in the right arm. The defendant, fearful that the victim would stab him in the heart, took out a gun and shot the victim to death.\nB. A defendant was home in bed with a fever one night, and all the lights in his house were off. A victim, who was scouting the neighborhood that night for a house to burglarize, broke into the defendant's house through the basement window and went upstairs to the bedrooms to look for jewelry. The defendant, who was not aware that someone else was in the house, was startled when he saw the victim walk past his room toward the stairs leading to the outside doorway. The defendant pulled out a pistol from under his pillow when he saw the victim and shot him to death.\nC. A defendant started a joke about the victim's brother. When word got to the victim about the defendant's joke, the victim became incensed. He rushed to the defendant's home, broke open the door and found the defendant preparing dinner in the kitchen. He immediately said, \"I'm going to kill you. \" The defendant knew that the victim had been convicted of attempted murder several years ago, and he cringed when the victim took out a gun and pointed it at him. The defendant could have easily darted for the open front door and evaded the victim but, instead, he suddenly pulled a knife from the kitchen wall, lunged at the victim, and stabbed him to death. Unknown to the defendant, the victim's gun was not loaded.\nD. A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death.\nAnswer:"," A defendant was a reporter for a newspaper and was sent on assignment to another state to cover the story of a mining disaster. He was sitting in his hotel room one evening, trying to get a message to his editor, when a victim knocked at the door. The defendant opened the door, and the victim announced a robbery. The defendant took a lamp from the night table and threw it at the victim. The victim was momentarily stunned, and the defendant then pulled a gun out of his own suitcase and shot the victim to death."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions."],["Question: A state election code provides that any political organization whose candidate received 20% or more of the vote at the most recent gubernatorial or presidential election is a political party; other political organizations are construed as political bodies. Political parties conduct primaries, and the winning candidates in each office may have their names placed on the ballot. However, nominees of political bodies or any independent candidate may only have their names placed on the ballot if they file a nominating petition signed by not less than 7% of those eligible to vote at the last election for the offices that they are seeking. The time for circulating the petition is 180 days, which is also the deadline governing party candidates in party primaries. An independent candidate, who desires to be listed on the ballot for the office of governor, challenges the constitutionality of this election law. The court will most likely declare this statute\nChoices:\nA. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the First and Fourteenth Amendments' rights of free speech.\nB. unconstitutional, because it is a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's due process clause.\nC. unconstitutional, because it violates the Fifteenth Amendment's voting provisions.\nD. constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause.\nAnswer:"," constitutional, because the election code is nonviolative of the equal protection clause."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises."],["Question: A businessman is the owner of a pet products company, which is engaged in the manufacture and sale of a variety of pet supplies. The businessman's company manufactures such products as pet furniture, toys, beds, collars, leashes, cages, and vitamins. These items are distributed to pet stores throughout the United States and Europe. For many years, the company has conducted its operations from a large factory located in a small town in the southern part of the state. One of the businessman's biggest selling products is specially manufactured high-frequency dog-calling whistles. These whistles are sold to dog-training schools and canine divisions of many police departments. Although these whistles are not audible to people, they are audible to dogs over considerable distances. Two years ago, a breeder purchased an undeveloped lot in the small town in which the company's factory was located. On her property, the breeder constructed a pet hotel, which was used as a boarding kennel for dogs and cats. This boarding facility was situated about 100 yards from the company's factory. Unknown to the breeder, high-frequency sound waves often emanated from the company's factory when dog-calling whistles were being tested. These sound waves caused the breeder's dogs to howl uncontrollably for many hours during the day and seriously interfered with the operation of her business. The breeder now brings an action against the businessman and the company to recover damages for the interference with her business caused by the high-frequency sound that reaches her kennel. The court should rule in favor of\nChoices:\nA. the businessman, because the breeder came to the nuisance after his factory had already been in operation for a number of years.\nB. the businessman, because the breeder's business is abnormally sensitive to harm caused by the high-frequency sound waves.\nC. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves constitute a trespass to her premises.\nD. the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business.\nAnswer:"," the breeder, because the high-frequency sound waves have seriously interfered with the operation of her business."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state."],["Question: A state enacted a statute prohibiting any motor vehicle traveling within the state from having window tinting or glass coating of any kind. The bill passed the state legislature at the urging of state and local law enforcement agencies who argued that tinted windows prevented them from observing interior car activity. Most citizens also supported the bill, especially after a state trooper was killed by an occupant in a window-tinted limousine. The trooper was unable to see that his assailant was armed and dangerous when he approached the vehicle for a speeding infraction. A limousine company operates a limo service in a neighboring state and has a fleet of 68 limos, all of which have tinted windows. Each year, the company makes thousands of trips into the state to transport passengers to the international airport situated 10 miles from the border separating the two states. Since all of its limos are manufactured with tinted windows, the company will incur great expense in ordering limos without tinting. The company brings suit to challenge the constitutionality of the state statute. Assuming that the company has proper standing to assert such an action, which of the following is their strongest constitutional argument to invalidate the aforesaid statute?\nChoices:\nA. Because window tinting is permitted on vehicles in neighboring states, this law denies the company the equal protection of laws.\nB. Because this law burdens interstate commerce by prohibiting all vehicles with window tinting from entering the state, this law violates the commerce clause.\nC. Because window tinting on vehicles is legal in their home state, this law violates the contract clause by preventing the company from fulfilling its obligation to transport passengers into a neighboring state.\nD. Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity.\nAnswer:"," Because interstate travel is a fundamental right that may not be burdened by state law, it violates the company's substantive due process rights by arbitrarily and unreasonably regulating economic activity."],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," nothing."],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," $10,000. 00"],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house."],["Question: A debtor owed a creditor $15,000 on a debt that had been discharged by the debtor's bankruptcy the previous year. The debtor wrote a letter to the creditor stating that he would pay the creditor $10,000 received from the proceeds of the sale of his house in payment of the discharged debt. One week later, the debtor learned that the person who had contracted to buy his house reneged on the deal. As a result, the debtor refused to pay anything to the creditor. If the creditor sues the debtor for breach of contract, he should be entitled to recover\nChoices:\nA. nothing.\nB. $10,000. 00\nC. $10,000, only if the debtor is successful in suing the person who had contracted to buy his house.\nD. $15,000. 00\nAnswer:"," $15,000. 00"]]
[["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Internal iliac"],["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Popliteal"],["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Sacral"],["Question: A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?\nChoices:\nA. Internal iliac\nB. Popliteal\nC. Sacral\nD. Superficial inguinal\nAnswer:"," Superficial inguinal"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Fatty acid oxidation"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Fatty acid synthesis"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Gluconeogenesis"],["Question: Six healthy subjects participate in a study of muscle metabolism during which hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia is induced. Muscle biopsy specimens obtained from the subjects during the resting state show significantly increased concentrations of malonyl-CoA. The increased malonyl-CoA concentration most likely directly inhibits which of the following processes in these subjects?\nChoices:\nA. Fatty acid oxidation\nB. Fatty acid synthesis\nC. Gluconeogenesis\nD. Glycogenolysis\nAnswer:"," Glycogenolysis"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Ultrasonography"],["Question: An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period but says that the pregnancy probably occurred immediately after she stopped taking oral contraceptives 5 months ago. Maternal serum \u03b1-fetoprotein (MSAFP) concentration is increased to 3 multiples of the median. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Repeat measurement of MSAFP concentration\nB. Triple screening for MSAFP, serum \u03b2-hCG, and serum estriol concentrations\nC. Ultrasonography\nD. Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration\nAnswer:"," Amniocentesis for measurement of \u03b1-fetoprotein concentration"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Aortic valve insufficiency"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Aortic valve stenosis"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Mitral valve insufficiency"],["Question: A 52-year-old woman has had dyspnea and hemoptysis for 1 month. She has a history of rheumatic fever as a child and has had a cardiac murmur since early adulthood. Her temperature is 36.7\u00b0C (98\u00b0F), pulse is 130/min and irregularly irregular, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Jugular venous pressure is not increased. Bilateral crackles are heard at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the third left intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, a straight left cardiac border, and pulmonary venous engorgement. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?\nChoices:\nA. Aortic valve insufficiency\nB. Aortic valve stenosis\nC. Mitral valve insufficiency\nD. Mitral valve stenosis\nAnswer:"," Mitral valve stenosis"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Acyclovir"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Imiquimod"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Levofloxacin"],["Question: A 31-year-old man with a 5-year history of HIV infection comes to the office because of anal pain, particularly on defecation, for the past 4 months. He says he has seen spots of blood on the toilet tissue but has not had any other noticeable bleeding. He reports no change in bowel habits and has not had recent fever, chills, or rectal drainage. He says he and his partner engage in anal-receptive intercourse. His most recent CD4+ T-lymphocyte count 2 months ago was 350/mm3 ; HIV viral load at that time was undetectable. He currently is being treated with antiretroviral therapy. He has had no opportunistic infections. Medical history is also significant for syphilis and genital herpes treated with penicillin and acyclovir, respectively. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcoholic beverages. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows small bilateral inguinal lymph nodes, but respiratory, cardiac, and abdominal examinations disclose no abnormalities. There are several tender fleshy lesions around the perianal area. Rectal examination produces tenderness, but there is no rectal discharge. Test of the stool for occult blood is trace positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?\nChoices:\nA. Acyclovir\nB. Imiquimod\nC. Levofloxacin\nD. Metronidazole\nAnswer:"," Metronidazole"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Bedside compartment pressure measurements"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy"],["Question: A 49-year-old man, who is recovering in the hospital 2 days after uncomplicated left femoral-popliteal bypass grafting for claudication, has now developed increasing pain in his left foot. Until now, the patient's postoperative course had been unremarkable and he has been treated with low-dose morphine for pain control. Medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with metformin and diet. Vital signs now are temperature 36.8\u00b0C (98.2\u00b0F), pulse 80/min and regular, respirations 20/min, and blood pressure 150/92 mm Hg. The surgical incision appears clean and well approximated without abnormal erythema or swelling. The left lower extremity and foot appear pale. Palpation of the left lower extremity discloses a strong femoral pulse, a weak popliteal pulse, and a cool, pulseless foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Bedside compartment pressure measurements\nB. Doppler ultrasonography of the left lower extremity\nC. Intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy\nD. Intraoperative angiography\nAnswer:"," Intraoperative angiography"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Projection"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Projective identification"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Reaction formation"],["Question: A 55-year-old man who is a business executive is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of abdominal pain. He is polite to the physician but berates the nurses and other staff. The patient's wife and two of his three adult children arrive for a visit. The patient says with disgust that the missing child is and always has been worthless. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's behavior?\nChoices:\nA. Projection\nB. Projective identification\nC. Reaction formation\nD. Splitting\nAnswer:"," Splitting"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor"],["Question: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination 1 week after he passed a renal calculus. X-ray crystallographic analysis of the calculus showed calcium as the primary cation. Physical examination today shows no abnormalities. A 24-hour collection of urine shows increased calcium excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?\nChoices:\nA. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor\nB. Na+ \u2013Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nC. Na+ \u2013K + \u20132Cl\u2212 symport inhibitor\nD. Osmotic diuretic\nAnswer:"," Osmotic diuretic"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Reassurance"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Assess for suicidal ideation"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Begin dextroamphetamine therapy"],["Question: A 72-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer metastatic to the liver is brought to the physician by her son because she cries all the time and will not get out of bed. On a 10-point scale, she rates the pain as a 1 to 2. She also has hypertension and major depressive disorder. She has received chemotherapy for 2 years. Current medications also include oxycodone (10 mg twice daily), hydrochlorothiazide (25 mg/d), and fluoxetine (20 mg/d). She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 66 kg (145 lb); BMI is 24 kg/m2 . Her temperature is 37\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a firm, distended abdomen with moderate tenderness over the liver. On mental status examination, she is oriented to person, place, and time. She has good eye contact but appears sad and cries easily. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?\nChoices:\nA. Reassurance\nB. Assess for suicidal ideation\nC. Begin dextroamphetamine therapy\nD. Increase oxycodone dosage\nAnswer:"," Increase oxycodone dosage"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Chest x-ray"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Fexofenadine therapy"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Increased use of the albuterol inhaler"],["Question: A 26-year-old male police officer comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. He is physically active and feels well, but he notes that his asthma has been more active during the past month. He says that he has had to use his albuterol inhaler one to two times daily for wheezing and chest tightness. He has not had gastroesophageal reflux symptoms, productive cough, or fever. Medical history is remarkable for atopic allergies, especially to pollen and cats. He has had coldand exercise-induced asthma for the past 14 years. He takes no other medications. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (200 lb); BMI is 25 kg/m2 . Vital signs are temperature 37.0\u00b0C (98.6\u00b0F), pulse 70/min, respirations 12/min, and blood pressure 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities except for scattered rhonchi and wheezes with forced expiration. Peak expiratory flow rate is 240 L/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?\nChoices:\nA. Chest x-ray\nB. Fexofenadine therapy\nC. Increased use of the albuterol inhaler\nD. Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler\nAnswer:"," Initiation of a daily corticosteroid inhaler"]]
[["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population"],["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision"],["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level"],["Question: Individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation\nChoices:\nA. constitute 2% - 3% of the mentally retarded population\nB. can be trained to perform unskilled work under close supervision\nC. usually acquire academic skills up to approximately eighth-grade level\nD. display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning\nAnswer:"," display minimal or no impairment in sensorimotor functioning"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities"],["Question: Psychologist\u2019s 35-year-old patient admits to sexually molesting a nine-year-old child in the neighborhood. This patient has prior history of such behavior. The psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. notify the authorities immediately and inform the patient that this is being done\nB. warn the patient to cease the molestations immediately or risk loss of confidentiality and being reported to the authorities\nC. inform the child's parents, who are responsible for the child\u2019s well-being, before notifying the authorities\nD. handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality\nAnswer:"," handle the issue within the therapeutic situation and thereby maintain confidentiality"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," ethical"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," unethical"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation"],["Question: A psychologist completes an assessment, then refers the patient to another psychologist for therapy. The therapist requests and receives a consultation from the referring psychologist regarding the assessment, and pays for the consultation. This action is\nChoices:\nA. ethical\nB. unethical\nC. ethical only if the patient, not the therapist, pays for the consultation\nD. ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist\nAnswer:"," ethical only if the therapist is being supervised by the referring psychologist"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," medulla oblongara"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," corpus callosum"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," parietal cortex"],["Question: The inability to recognize objects by touch alone is most likely the result of damage to the\nChoices:\nA. medulla oblongara\nB. corpus callosum\nC. parietal cortex\nD. pons\nAnswer:"," pons"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 12 years"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 3-6 years"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 7-12 years"],["Question: Magical thinking would predispose a child of what age range to infer chat his or her father died because of the child\u2019s own misbehavior\nChoices:\nA. 12 years\nB. 3-6 years\nC. 7-12 years\nD. 13-18 years\nAnswer:"," 13-18 years"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," reticular formation"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," cerebellum"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," thalamus"],["Question: The sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the\nChoices:\nA. reticular formation\nB. cerebellum\nC. thalamus\nD. parietal lobe\nAnswer:"," parietal lobe"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Send the records as requested"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents"],["Question: You have been treating a teenage male you suspect may have some neurologic difficulties. You inform his parents about your concerns and suggest they send him to a neurologist for an evaluation. Sometime later, the neurologist contacts you and requests your progress notes. You should ___________.\nChoices:\nA. Tell the neurologist the parents need to request the records\nB. Send the records as requested\nC. Inform the neurologist that you would need a release of information signed by your client\u2019s parents\nD. Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist\nAnswer:"," Ask your client whether he wishes to have the records released to the neurologist"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client"],["Question: A psychologist who shares an office with another psychologist reruns around midnight to retrieve some papers and unexpectedly comes upon the colleague engaging in sexual relations with one of that colleague's clients. According to ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, the first psychologist should\nChoices:\nA. speak with the colleague privately to resolve this incident informally\nB. report the colleague to the appropriate local, state/provincial, or national ethics committee\nC. say nothing further regarding this incident unless there is 2 complaint from the client\nD. contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice\nAnswer:"," contact the colleague's client to offer assistance and/or professional advice"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Tolerance"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Withdrawal"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Legal problems"],["Question: Which of the following is not represented in DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for problem gambling?\nChoices:\nA. Tolerance\nB. Withdrawal\nC. Legal problems\nD. Lying\nAnswer:"," Lying"],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," causes over-reliance on statistical data."],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," doesn't take base rate data into account."],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior."],["Question: A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so:\nChoices:\nA. causes over-reliance on statistical data.\nB. doesn't take base rate data into account.\nC. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior.\nD. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.\nAnswer:"," doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory."]]
[["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Inputs"],["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Outputs"],["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Outtakes"],["Question: According to Macnamara's (2005) pyramid of evaluation, at which stage is media coverage most likely to be measured?\nChoices:\nA. Inputs\nB. Outputs\nC. Outtakes\nD. Outcomes\nAnswer:"," Outcomes"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," ingratiation"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," downplaying"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," distancing"],["Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of persuasive crisis communication strategies identified by W. Timothy Coombs?\nChoices:\nA. ingratiation\nB. downplaying\nC. distancing\nD. nonexistence\nAnswer:"," nonexistence"],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness."],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product."],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product."],["Question: You are the vice president of public relations for a corporation that produces a well-known brand of food products. In the Albany, New York, market, one of your products has recently been found to have some contamination. While apparently not fatal, it has given a large number of consumers severe stomach cramps and other intestinal problems. The cause has been traced back to your product, which is sold throughout the nation. Your CEO wants to know what you would advise to keep the situation from becoming a public relations disaster. What should you recommend?\nChoices:\nA. Quickly investigate to make certain your product is definitely the cause of the illness.\nB. Stop all sales of the product throughout the nation and issue a recall for that product.\nC. Stop sales of the product in the Albany, New York, market and issue a recall for that product.\nD. Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms.\nAnswer:"," Issue a press release to the Albany, New York, market explaining how to treat the symptoms."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media."],["Question: Which definition best describes media convergence?\nChoices:\nA. The conglomeration of media outlets into large corporations.\nB. The way in which all media outlets post similar content to their competitors.\nC. The many differing views and cultures expressed in modern media.\nD. Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels.\nAnswer:"," Information being delivered in different formats via various digital channels."],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They offer flexibility of talents and skills."],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They bring greater credibility to the work. "],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They will provide sound ROI on the project or program."],["Question: What are major reasons why organizations retain outside public relations counsel? \nChoices:\nA. They offer flexibility of talents and skills.\nB. They bring greater credibility to the work. \nC. They will provide sound ROI on the project or program.\nD. They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff.\nAnswer:"," They can provide more attention and detail to a project that in-house staff."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages."],["Question: Early theories of mass communication suggested that audiences were passive recipients of media messages and thus vulnerable to manipulation. Which of the following best describes current thinking?\nChoices:\nA. Audiences are more vulnerable and passive than ever before.\nB. Television viewing, in particular, creates increased activity in the right hemisphere of the brain.\nC. Active receivers are not uniformly affected by mass communication messages.\nD. Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems.\nAnswer:"," Technology has led to increasingly passive recipients at the ends of message transmission systems."],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Circulation"],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Distribution"],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Traffic"],["Question: Which of the following information about publications does the Audit Bureau of Circulation NOT provide?\nChoices:\nA. Circulation\nB. Distribution\nC. Traffic\nD. Readership\nAnswer:"," Readership"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Clients' questions about costs"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Resistance to outside advice"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems"],["Question: In the public relations field, what is the most common threat to a client-firm relationship?\nChoices:\nA. Clients' questions about costs\nB. Resistance to outside advice\nC. Superficial grasp of the client's unique problems\nD. Personality conflicts\nAnswer:"," Personality conflicts"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," One-quarter"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," One-half"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," Two thirds"],["Question: Approximately what proportion of nonprofit sector practitioners conduct audience research?\nChoices:\nA. One-quarter\nB. One-half\nC. Two thirds\nD. Almost all\nAnswer:"," Almost all"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Representing clients using new social media environments"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Training staff to use social media"],["Question: Which of the following Internet-related challenges is most significant in the public relations field?\nChoices:\nA. Representing clients using new social media environments\nB. Finding stable, cost-effective Internet providers\nC. Training staff to use social media\nD. Staying abreast of changing technology\nAnswer:"," Staying abreast of changing technology"]]
[["Question: Which of these statements best describes the HM approach to sectoral security analysis?\nChoices:\nA. HM agrees with the idea that security can be viewed using a sectoral framework, and recognises the depth of analysis that is enabled by such an approach.\nB. HM rejects Buzan et al.'s theory of sectoral security analysis, on the grounds that securitization is a product of a state-centric approach.\nC. HM rejects the assertion by Buzan et al. that there are distinct and separate sectors of security, instead adopting a holistic view of security within which national and transnational class is an important factor.\nD. HM favours the sectoral approach to security analysis, in particular prioritising the state as a referent object and drawing much of its theoretical foundations from the realist principles that underpin the sectoral approach.\nAnswer:"," HM agrees with the idea that security can be viewed using a sectoral framework, and recognises the depth of analysis that is enabled by such an approach."],["Question: Which of these statements best describes the HM approach to sectoral security analysis?\nChoices:\nA. HM agrees with the idea that security can be viewed using a sectoral framework, and recognises the depth of analysis that is enabled by such an approach.\nB. HM rejects Buzan et al.'s theory of sectoral security analysis, on the grounds that securitization is a product of a state-centric approach.\nC. HM rejects the assertion by Buzan et al. that there are distinct and separate sectors of security, instead adopting a holistic view of security within which national and transnational class is an important factor.\nD. HM favours the sectoral approach to security analysis, in particular prioritising the state as a referent object and drawing much of its theoretical foundations from the realist principles that underpin the sectoral approach.\nAnswer:"," HM rejects Buzan et al.'s theory of sectoral security analysis, on the grounds that securitization is a product of a state-centric approach."],["Question: Which of these statements best describes the HM approach to sectoral security analysis?\nChoices:\nA. HM agrees with the idea that security can be viewed using a sectoral framework, and recognises the depth of analysis that is enabled by such an approach.\nB. HM rejects Buzan et al.'s theory of sectoral security analysis, on the grounds that securitization is a product of a state-centric approach.\nC. HM rejects the assertion by Buzan et al. that there are distinct and separate sectors of security, instead adopting a holistic view of security within which national and transnational class is an important factor.\nD. HM favours the sectoral approach to security analysis, in particular prioritising the state as a referent object and drawing much of its theoretical foundations from the realist principles that underpin the sectoral approach.\nAnswer:"," HM rejects the assertion by Buzan et al. that there are distinct and separate sectors of security, instead adopting a holistic view of security within which national and transnational class is an important factor."],["Question: Which of these statements best describes the HM approach to sectoral security analysis?\nChoices:\nA. HM agrees with the idea that security can be viewed using a sectoral framework, and recognises the depth of analysis that is enabled by such an approach.\nB. HM rejects Buzan et al.'s theory of sectoral security analysis, on the grounds that securitization is a product of a state-centric approach.\nC. HM rejects the assertion by Buzan et al. that there are distinct and separate sectors of security, instead adopting a holistic view of security within which national and transnational class is an important factor.\nD. HM favours the sectoral approach to security analysis, in particular prioritising the state as a referent object and drawing much of its theoretical foundations from the realist principles that underpin the sectoral approach.\nAnswer:"," HM favours the sectoral approach to security analysis, in particular prioritising the state as a referent object and drawing much of its theoretical foundations from the realist principles that underpin the sectoral approach."],["Question: To what extent is TNC linked with terrorism, and in what ways?\nChoices:\nA. There is growing evidence of direct partnerships between terrorist groups and transnational criminal organization resulting from the end of the Cold War and the need to secure new forms of financial sponsorship. For most terrorist groups criminal activity has been amongst the most important sources of funds with the diffusion of terrorist networks globally operating in correlation to the diffusion of illicit market activities.\nB. The nexus between terrorist groups and criminal organizations are generally a temporary aberration. Differential long-term strategic goals meant that levels of cooperation were generally tactical temporary alliances that would have little pervasive effects.\nC. There is increasing evidence over the convergence of terrorism and transnational crime, but there is no consensus about whether this phenomenon is a long-term strategic alliance or episodic \"marriages of convenience\".\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," There is growing evidence of direct partnerships between terrorist groups and transnational criminal organization resulting from the end of the Cold War and the need to secure new forms of financial sponsorship. For most terrorist groups criminal activity has been amongst the most important sources of funds with the diffusion of terrorist networks globally operating in correlation to the diffusion of illicit market activities."],["Question: To what extent is TNC linked with terrorism, and in what ways?\nChoices:\nA. There is growing evidence of direct partnerships between terrorist groups and transnational criminal organization resulting from the end of the Cold War and the need to secure new forms of financial sponsorship. For most terrorist groups criminal activity has been amongst the most important sources of funds with the diffusion of terrorist networks globally operating in correlation to the diffusion of illicit market activities.\nB. The nexus between terrorist groups and criminal organizations are generally a temporary aberration. Differential long-term strategic goals meant that levels of cooperation were generally tactical temporary alliances that would have little pervasive effects.\nC. There is increasing evidence over the convergence of terrorism and transnational crime, but there is no consensus about whether this phenomenon is a long-term strategic alliance or episodic \"marriages of convenience\".\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," The nexus between terrorist groups and criminal organizations are generally a temporary aberration. Differential long-term strategic goals meant that levels of cooperation were generally tactical temporary alliances that would have little pervasive effects."],["Question: To what extent is TNC linked with terrorism, and in what ways?\nChoices:\nA. There is growing evidence of direct partnerships between terrorist groups and transnational criminal organization resulting from the end of the Cold War and the need to secure new forms of financial sponsorship. For most terrorist groups criminal activity has been amongst the most important sources of funds with the diffusion of terrorist networks globally operating in correlation to the diffusion of illicit market activities.\nB. The nexus between terrorist groups and criminal organizations are generally a temporary aberration. Differential long-term strategic goals meant that levels of cooperation were generally tactical temporary alliances that would have little pervasive effects.\nC. There is increasing evidence over the convergence of terrorism and transnational crime, but there is no consensus about whether this phenomenon is a long-term strategic alliance or episodic \"marriages of convenience\".\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," There is increasing evidence over the convergence of terrorism and transnational crime, but there is no consensus about whether this phenomenon is a long-term strategic alliance or episodic \"marriages of convenience\"."],["Question: To what extent is TNC linked with terrorism, and in what ways?\nChoices:\nA. There is growing evidence of direct partnerships between terrorist groups and transnational criminal organization resulting from the end of the Cold War and the need to secure new forms of financial sponsorship. For most terrorist groups criminal activity has been amongst the most important sources of funds with the diffusion of terrorist networks globally operating in correlation to the diffusion of illicit market activities.\nB. The nexus between terrorist groups and criminal organizations are generally a temporary aberration. Differential long-term strategic goals meant that levels of cooperation were generally tactical temporary alliances that would have little pervasive effects.\nC. There is increasing evidence over the convergence of terrorism and transnational crime, but there is no consensus about whether this phenomenon is a long-term strategic alliance or episodic \"marriages of convenience\".\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," All of these options."],["Question: In what ways do theories of conventional and critical social constructivism differ?\nChoices:\nA. Conventional constructivists view constructivism as a bridge between rationalist and reflectivist approaches, enabling both to benefit from the insights of the other. Conversely, critical constructivists argue that this approach simply reproduces the binary distinctions that characterize positivist methodology.\nB. Critical constructivism regards the strength of social constructivism to be its ability to bridge rationalist and reflectivity approaches. Conversely, social constructivists regard this as an unhelpful regression to positivist binary frameworks of analysis.\nC. Conventional constructivism refers to the earlier works of social constructivist theorists that are characterised by a rejection of positivist methodology. Critical constructivists challenge these theories, embracing positivist methodologies in their work.\nD. Social constructivism is best understood as a uniform approach to the construction of social identities and security; although distinctions exist within the field, these are not easily defined as distinctive separate approaches.\nAnswer:"," Conventional constructivists view constructivism as a bridge between rationalist and reflectivist approaches, enabling both to benefit from the insights of the other. Conversely, critical constructivists argue that this approach simply reproduces the binary distinctions that characterize positivist methodology."],["Question: In what ways do theories of conventional and critical social constructivism differ?\nChoices:\nA. Conventional constructivists view constructivism as a bridge between rationalist and reflectivist approaches, enabling both to benefit from the insights of the other. Conversely, critical constructivists argue that this approach simply reproduces the binary distinctions that characterize positivist methodology.\nB. Critical constructivism regards the strength of social constructivism to be its ability to bridge rationalist and reflectivity approaches. Conversely, social constructivists regard this as an unhelpful regression to positivist binary frameworks of analysis.\nC. Conventional constructivism refers to the earlier works of social constructivist theorists that are characterised by a rejection of positivist methodology. Critical constructivists challenge these theories, embracing positivist methodologies in their work.\nD. Social constructivism is best understood as a uniform approach to the construction of social identities and security; although distinctions exist within the field, these are not easily defined as distinctive separate approaches.\nAnswer:"," Critical constructivism regards the strength of social constructivism to be its ability to bridge rationalist and reflectivity approaches. Conversely, social constructivists regard this as an unhelpful regression to positivist binary frameworks of analysis."],["Question: In what ways do theories of conventional and critical social constructivism differ?\nChoices:\nA. Conventional constructivists view constructivism as a bridge between rationalist and reflectivist approaches, enabling both to benefit from the insights of the other. Conversely, critical constructivists argue that this approach simply reproduces the binary distinctions that characterize positivist methodology.\nB. Critical constructivism regards the strength of social constructivism to be its ability to bridge rationalist and reflectivity approaches. Conversely, social constructivists regard this as an unhelpful regression to positivist binary frameworks of analysis.\nC. Conventional constructivism refers to the earlier works of social constructivist theorists that are characterised by a rejection of positivist methodology. Critical constructivists challenge these theories, embracing positivist methodologies in their work.\nD. Social constructivism is best understood as a uniform approach to the construction of social identities and security; although distinctions exist within the field, these are not easily defined as distinctive separate approaches.\nAnswer:"," Conventional constructivism refers to the earlier works of social constructivist theorists that are characterised by a rejection of positivist methodology. Critical constructivists challenge these theories, embracing positivist methodologies in their work."],["Question: In what ways do theories of conventional and critical social constructivism differ?\nChoices:\nA. Conventional constructivists view constructivism as a bridge between rationalist and reflectivist approaches, enabling both to benefit from the insights of the other. Conversely, critical constructivists argue that this approach simply reproduces the binary distinctions that characterize positivist methodology.\nB. Critical constructivism regards the strength of social constructivism to be its ability to bridge rationalist and reflectivity approaches. Conversely, social constructivists regard this as an unhelpful regression to positivist binary frameworks of analysis.\nC. Conventional constructivism refers to the earlier works of social constructivist theorists that are characterised by a rejection of positivist methodology. Critical constructivists challenge these theories, embracing positivist methodologies in their work.\nD. Social constructivism is best understood as a uniform approach to the construction of social identities and security; although distinctions exist within the field, these are not easily defined as distinctive separate approaches.\nAnswer:"," Social constructivism is best understood as a uniform approach to the construction of social identities and security; although distinctions exist within the field, these are not easily defined as distinctive separate approaches."],["Question: Which of the following represent a move away from traditional interpretations of security studies?\nChoices:\nA. Critical questioning.\nB. Realist logic.\nC. State-centric security analysis.\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," Critical questioning."],["Question: Which of the following represent a move away from traditional interpretations of security studies?\nChoices:\nA. Critical questioning.\nB. Realist logic.\nC. State-centric security analysis.\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," Realist logic."],["Question: Which of the following represent a move away from traditional interpretations of security studies?\nChoices:\nA. Critical questioning.\nB. Realist logic.\nC. State-centric security analysis.\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," State-centric security analysis."],["Question: Which of the following represent a move away from traditional interpretations of security studies?\nChoices:\nA. Critical questioning.\nB. Realist logic.\nC. State-centric security analysis.\nD. All of these options.\nAnswer:"," All of these options."],["Question: Which of the following statements best describes our understanding of the term 'globalization'?\nChoices:\nA. Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism.\nB. Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of space and time through the development of new technologies.\nC. Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community, drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic and technical levels. This process began in the early 20th century and was based on the ideological expeditions that originated from western Europe.\nD. Globalization has occurred since the 1980s, originating in Western Europe as a centre of political power and technological advancement. The process is a direct result of technological advancement in communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe.\nAnswer:"," Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism."],["Question: Which of the following statements best describes our understanding of the term 'globalization'?\nChoices:\nA. Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism.\nB. Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of space and time through the development of new technologies.\nC. Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community, drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic and technical levels. This process began in the early 20th century and was based on the ideological expeditions that originated from western Europe.\nD. Globalization has occurred since the 1980s, originating in Western Europe as a centre of political power and technological advancement. The process is a direct result of technological advancement in communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe.\nAnswer:"," Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of space and time through the development of new technologies."],["Question: Which of the following statements best describes our understanding of the term 'globalization'?\nChoices:\nA. Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism.\nB. Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of space and time through the development of new technologies.\nC. Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community, drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic and technical levels. This process began in the early 20th century and was based on the ideological expeditions that originated from western Europe.\nD. Globalization has occurred since the 1980s, originating in Western Europe as a centre of political power and technological advancement. The process is a direct result of technological advancement in communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe.\nAnswer:"," Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community, drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic and technical levels. This process began in the early 20th century and was based on the ideological expeditions that originated from western Europe."],["Question: Which of the following statements best describes our understanding of the term 'globalization'?\nChoices:\nA. Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism.\nB. Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of space and time through the development of new technologies.\nC. Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community, drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic and technical levels. This process began in the early 20th century and was based on the ideological expeditions that originated from western Europe.\nD. Globalization has occurred since the 1980s, originating in Western Europe as a centre of political power and technological advancement. The process is a direct result of technological advancement in communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe.\nAnswer:"," Globalization has occurred since the 1980s, originating in Western Europe as a centre of political power and technological advancement. The process is a direct result of technological advancement in communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe."],["Question: What is the relationship between culture and social constructivism?\nChoices:\nA. All of the below.\nB. Culture is the product of shared identity and interaction, although it is important in understanding the dynamics of social identity, its wider reference to security studies is largely disputed.\nC. Social constructivism does not regard culture as being an important feature to study, instead focusing on individualistic aspects of identity such as personal interests and ambition.\nD. Culture is commonly regarded as a set of practices that give meaning to shared experiences and actions; it can impact on how states see security and is crucial in constructing the values and rules that inform identity.\nAnswer:"," All of the below."],["Question: What is the relationship between culture and social constructivism?\nChoices:\nA. All of the below.\nB. Culture is the product of shared identity and interaction, although it is important in understanding the dynamics of social identity, its wider reference to security studies is largely disputed.\nC. Social constructivism does not regard culture as being an important feature to study, instead focusing on individualistic aspects of identity such as personal interests and ambition.\nD. Culture is commonly regarded as a set of practices that give meaning to shared experiences and actions; it can impact on how states see security and is crucial in constructing the values and rules that inform identity.\nAnswer:"," Culture is the product of shared identity and interaction, although it is important in understanding the dynamics of social identity, its wider reference to security studies is largely disputed."],["Question: What is the relationship between culture and social constructivism?\nChoices:\nA. All of the below.\nB. Culture is the product of shared identity and interaction, although it is important in understanding the dynamics of social identity, its wider reference to security studies is largely disputed.\nC. Social constructivism does not regard culture as being an important feature to study, instead focusing on individualistic aspects of identity such as personal interests and ambition.\nD. Culture is commonly regarded as a set of practices that give meaning to shared experiences and actions; it can impact on how states see security and is crucial in constructing the values and rules that inform identity.\nAnswer:"," Social constructivism does not regard culture as being an important feature to study, instead focusing on individualistic aspects of identity such as personal interests and ambition."],["Question: What is the relationship between culture and social constructivism?\nChoices:\nA. All of the below.\nB. Culture is the product of shared identity and interaction, although it is important in understanding the dynamics of social identity, its wider reference to security studies is largely disputed.\nC. Social constructivism does not regard culture as being an important feature to study, instead focusing on individualistic aspects of identity such as personal interests and ambition.\nD. Culture is commonly regarded as a set of practices that give meaning to shared experiences and actions; it can impact on how states see security and is crucial in constructing the values and rules that inform identity.\nAnswer:"," Culture is commonly regarded as a set of practices that give meaning to shared experiences and actions; it can impact on how states see security and is crucial in constructing the values and rules that inform identity."],["Question: In what ways might a society be threatened?\nChoices:\nA. Societies are threatened when their linguistic heritage and traditions are under attack. The inability to use and develop traditional language signifies the destruction of a society.\nB. Threats to societal security exist when a society regards its collective identity as being under question. Such circumstances include the suppression of expression and interference with a society's ability to reproduce itself across generations.\nC. Military threats to societies in the form of external aggression, mainly through de-population policies with the intent of preventing collective identities from being reproduced over generations.\nD. Migratory influxes into a host receiving state results in a shift in the composition of the population resulting in horizontal competition or vertical competition. This is not an outright threat to survival but part of wider uncontrollable processes of evolutionary identity.\nAnswer:"," Societies are threatened when their linguistic heritage and traditions are under attack. The inability to use and develop traditional language signifies the destruction of a society."],["Question: In what ways might a society be threatened?\nChoices:\nA. Societies are threatened when their linguistic heritage and traditions are under attack. The inability to use and develop traditional language signifies the destruction of a society.\nB. Threats to societal security exist when a society regards its collective identity as being under question. Such circumstances include the suppression of expression and interference with a society's ability to reproduce itself across generations.\nC. Military threats to societies in the form of external aggression, mainly through de-population policies with the intent of preventing collective identities from being reproduced over generations.\nD. Migratory influxes into a host receiving state results in a shift in the composition of the population resulting in horizontal competition or vertical competition. This is not an outright threat to survival but part of wider uncontrollable processes of evolutionary identity.\nAnswer:"," Threats to societal security exist when a society regards its collective identity as being under question. Such circumstances include the suppression of expression and interference with a society's ability to reproduce itself across generations."],["Question: In what ways might a society be threatened?\nChoices:\nA. Societies are threatened when their linguistic heritage and traditions are under attack. The inability to use and develop traditional language signifies the destruction of a society.\nB. Threats to societal security exist when a society regards its collective identity as being under question. Such circumstances include the suppression of expression and interference with a society's ability to reproduce itself across generations.\nC. Military threats to societies in the form of external aggression, mainly through de-population policies with the intent of preventing collective identities from being reproduced over generations.\nD. Migratory influxes into a host receiving state results in a shift in the composition of the population resulting in horizontal competition or vertical competition. This is not an outright threat to survival but part of wider uncontrollable processes of evolutionary identity.\nAnswer:"," Military threats to societies in the form of external aggression, mainly through de-population policies with the intent of preventing collective identities from being reproduced over generations."],["Question: In what ways might a society be threatened?\nChoices:\nA. Societies are threatened when their linguistic heritage and traditions are under attack. The inability to use and develop traditional language signifies the destruction of a society.\nB. Threats to societal security exist when a society regards its collective identity as being under question. Such circumstances include the suppression of expression and interference with a society's ability to reproduce itself across generations.\nC. Military threats to societies in the form of external aggression, mainly through de-population policies with the intent of preventing collective identities from being reproduced over generations.\nD. Migratory influxes into a host receiving state results in a shift in the composition of the population resulting in horizontal competition or vertical competition. This is not an outright threat to survival but part of wider uncontrollable processes of evolutionary identity.\nAnswer:"," Migratory influxes into a host receiving state results in a shift in the composition of the population resulting in horizontal competition or vertical competition. This is not an outright threat to survival but part of wider uncontrollable processes of evolutionary identity."],["Question: Which of the following phrases is not likely to indicate legitimacy in the new terminology of RMA?\nChoices:\nA. Surgical strike.\nB. Indiscriminate attack.\nC. Smart bomb.\nD. Precision target.\nAnswer:"," Surgical strike."],["Question: Which of the following phrases is not likely to indicate legitimacy in the new terminology of RMA?\nChoices:\nA. Surgical strike.\nB. Indiscriminate attack.\nC. Smart bomb.\nD. Precision target.\nAnswer:"," Indiscriminate attack."],["Question: Which of the following phrases is not likely to indicate legitimacy in the new terminology of RMA?\nChoices:\nA. Surgical strike.\nB. Indiscriminate attack.\nC. Smart bomb.\nD. Precision target.\nAnswer:"," Smart bomb."],["Question: Which of the following phrases is not likely to indicate legitimacy in the new terminology of RMA?\nChoices:\nA. Surgical strike.\nB. Indiscriminate attack.\nC. Smart bomb.\nD. Precision target.\nAnswer:"," Precision target."],["Question: When considering economic tools for security policy, which of the following is the odd one out?\nChoices:\nA. Withdrawal of economic trade rights with the domestic market.\nB. Export controls protecting technological advantage and further foreign policy objectives.\nC. Control of munitions and arms sales.\nD. Import restrictions to protect a domestic market from foreign goods.\nAnswer:"," Withdrawal of economic trade rights with the domestic market."],["Question: When considering economic tools for security policy, which of the following is the odd one out?\nChoices:\nA. Withdrawal of economic trade rights with the domestic market.\nB. Export controls protecting technological advantage and further foreign policy objectives.\nC. Control of munitions and arms sales.\nD. Import restrictions to protect a domestic market from foreign goods.\nAnswer:"," Export controls protecting technological advantage and further foreign policy objectives."],["Question: When considering economic tools for security policy, which of the following is the odd one out?\nChoices:\nA. Withdrawal of economic trade rights with the domestic market.\nB. Export controls protecting technological advantage and further foreign policy objectives.\nC. Control of munitions and arms sales.\nD. Import restrictions to protect a domestic market from foreign goods.\nAnswer:"," Control of munitions and arms sales."],["Question: When considering economic tools for security policy, which of the following is the odd one out?\nChoices:\nA. Withdrawal of economic trade rights with the domestic market.\nB. Export controls protecting technological advantage and further foreign policy objectives.\nC. Control of munitions and arms sales.\nD. Import restrictions to protect a domestic market from foreign goods.\nAnswer:"," Import restrictions to protect a domestic market from foreign goods."],["Question: How does the social constructivist approach account for the process of militarization?\nChoices:\nA. By regarding security as a socially constructed concept, constructivists assert that militarization is the result of governmental decisions based on shared values and cultural norms that underpin their conception of what constitutes a security risk. Accordingly, different governments will identify different threats and react in different ways.\nB. Social constructivists tend to focus on the population rather than military as an area for study, thus regarding the process of militarization largely in terms of its impact on human security.\nC. Social constructivists assert that the process follows a popular recognition of empirically definable threats; when it is recognized that an issue poses a real and valid threat, it warrants militarization.\nD. In their uniform advocacy of human security and adoption of a human-centric approach to security studies, social constructivists regard militarization as a process that is detrimental to achieving wider security goals and actively encourage the demilitarization of the security system.\nAnswer:"," By regarding security as a socially constructed concept, constructivists assert that militarization is the result of governmental decisions based on shared values and cultural norms that underpin their conception of what constitutes a security risk. Accordingly, different governments will identify different threats and react in different ways."],["Question: How does the social constructivist approach account for the process of militarization?\nChoices:\nA. By regarding security as a socially constructed concept, constructivists assert that militarization is the result of governmental decisions based on shared values and cultural norms that underpin their conception of what constitutes a security risk. Accordingly, different governments will identify different threats and react in different ways.\nB. Social constructivists tend to focus on the population rather than military as an area for study, thus regarding the process of militarization largely in terms of its impact on human security.\nC. Social constructivists assert that the process follows a popular recognition of empirically definable threats; when it is recognized that an issue poses a real and valid threat, it warrants militarization.\nD. In their uniform advocacy of human security and adoption of a human-centric approach to security studies, social constructivists regard militarization as a process that is detrimental to achieving wider security goals and actively encourage the demilitarization of the security system.\nAnswer:"," Social constructivists tend to focus on the population rather than military as an area for study, thus regarding the process of militarization largely in terms of its impact on human security."],["Question: How does the social constructivist approach account for the process of militarization?\nChoices:\nA. By regarding security as a socially constructed concept, constructivists assert that militarization is the result of governmental decisions based on shared values and cultural norms that underpin their conception of what constitutes a security risk. Accordingly, different governments will identify different threats and react in different ways.\nB. Social constructivists tend to focus on the population rather than military as an area for study, thus regarding the process of militarization largely in terms of its impact on human security.\nC. Social constructivists assert that the process follows a popular recognition of empirically definable threats; when it is recognized that an issue poses a real and valid threat, it warrants militarization.\nD. In their uniform advocacy of human security and adoption of a human-centric approach to security studies, social constructivists regard militarization as a process that is detrimental to achieving wider security goals and actively encourage the demilitarization of the security system.\nAnswer:"," Social constructivists assert that the process follows a popular recognition of empirically definable threats; when it is recognized that an issue poses a real and valid threat, it warrants militarization."],["Question: How does the social constructivist approach account for the process of militarization?\nChoices:\nA. By regarding security as a socially constructed concept, constructivists assert that militarization is the result of governmental decisions based on shared values and cultural norms that underpin their conception of what constitutes a security risk. Accordingly, different governments will identify different threats and react in different ways.\nB. Social constructivists tend to focus on the population rather than military as an area for study, thus regarding the process of militarization largely in terms of its impact on human security.\nC. Social constructivists assert that the process follows a popular recognition of empirically definable threats; when it is recognized that an issue poses a real and valid threat, it warrants militarization.\nD. In their uniform advocacy of human security and adoption of a human-centric approach to security studies, social constructivists regard militarization as a process that is detrimental to achieving wider security goals and actively encourage the demilitarization of the security system.\nAnswer:"," In their uniform advocacy of human security and adoption of a human-centric approach to security studies, social constructivists regard militarization as a process that is detrimental to achieving wider security goals and actively encourage the demilitarization of the security system."]]
[["Question: Murray thought that the 'underclass' consisted of people who:\nChoices:\nA. formed an inferior 'race' with low levels of intelligence\nB. lived morally unsound lives of crime and squalor\nC. were too reliant upon welfare benefits\nD. all of the above\nAnswer:"," formed an inferior 'race' with low levels of intelligence"],["Question: Murray thought that the 'underclass' consisted of people who:\nChoices:\nA. formed an inferior 'race' with low levels of intelligence\nB. lived morally unsound lives of crime and squalor\nC. were too reliant upon welfare benefits\nD. all of the above\nAnswer:"," lived morally unsound lives of crime and squalor"],["Question: Murray thought that the 'underclass' consisted of people who:\nChoices:\nA. formed an inferior 'race' with low levels of intelligence\nB. lived morally unsound lives of crime and squalor\nC. were too reliant upon welfare benefits\nD. all of the above\nAnswer:"," were too reliant upon welfare benefits"],["Question: Murray thought that the 'underclass' consisted of people who:\nChoices:\nA. formed an inferior 'race' with low levels of intelligence\nB. lived morally unsound lives of crime and squalor\nC. were too reliant upon welfare benefits\nD. all of the above\nAnswer:"," all of the above"],["Question: Bowlby's maternal deprivation thesis claimed that:\nChoices:\nA. mothers who are living in poverty cannot afford to give their children the resources that other children enjoy\nB. children deprived of an early, secure attachment to their mother are prone to suffer physically, intellectually and socially in later life\nC. 'mothering' is a socially constructed activity identified in the narratives of new mothers\nD. deprivation is something children inherit, usually through their mother's side\nAnswer:"," mothers who are living in poverty cannot afford to give their children the resources that other children enjoy"],["Question: Bowlby's maternal deprivation thesis claimed that:\nChoices:\nA. mothers who are living in poverty cannot afford to give their children the resources that other children enjoy\nB. children deprived of an early, secure attachment to their mother are prone to suffer physically, intellectually and socially in later life\nC. 'mothering' is a socially constructed activity identified in the narratives of new mothers\nD. deprivation is something children inherit, usually through their mother's side\nAnswer:"," children deprived of an early, secure attachment to their mother are prone to suffer physically, intellectually and socially in later life"],["Question: Bowlby's maternal deprivation thesis claimed that:\nChoices:\nA. mothers who are living in poverty cannot afford to give their children the resources that other children enjoy\nB. children deprived of an early, secure attachment to their mother are prone to suffer physically, intellectually and socially in later life\nC. 'mothering' is a socially constructed activity identified in the narratives of new mothers\nD. deprivation is something children inherit, usually through their mother's side\nAnswer:"," 'mothering' is a socially constructed activity identified in the narratives of new mothers"],["Question: Bowlby's maternal deprivation thesis claimed that:\nChoices:\nA. mothers who are living in poverty cannot afford to give their children the resources that other children enjoy\nB. children deprived of an early, secure attachment to their mother are prone to suffer physically, intellectually and socially in later life\nC. 'mothering' is a socially constructed activity identified in the narratives of new mothers\nD. deprivation is something children inherit, usually through their mother's side\nAnswer:"," deprivation is something children inherit, usually through their mother's side"],["Question: Scott (1991) introduced the term 'power elite' to describe:\nChoices:\nA. the ruling class, or bourgeoisie, who exploit the proletariat\nB. a capitalist class dependent on property ownership and advantaged life chances\nC. an alignment of classes with shared interests but no state power\nD. a state elite whose members are drawn overwhelmingly from a power bloc\nAnswer:"," the ruling class, or bourgeoisie, who exploit the proletariat"],["Question: Scott (1991) introduced the term 'power elite' to describe:\nChoices:\nA. the ruling class, or bourgeoisie, who exploit the proletariat\nB. a capitalist class dependent on property ownership and advantaged life chances\nC. an alignment of classes with shared interests but no state power\nD. a state elite whose members are drawn overwhelmingly from a power bloc\nAnswer:"," a capitalist class dependent on property ownership and advantaged life chances"],["Question: Scott (1991) introduced the term 'power elite' to describe:\nChoices:\nA. the ruling class, or bourgeoisie, who exploit the proletariat\nB. a capitalist class dependent on property ownership and advantaged life chances\nC. an alignment of classes with shared interests but no state power\nD. a state elite whose members are drawn overwhelmingly from a power bloc\nAnswer:"," an alignment of classes with shared interests but no state power"],["Question: Scott (1991) introduced the term 'power elite' to describe:\nChoices:\nA. the ruling class, or bourgeoisie, who exploit the proletariat\nB. a capitalist class dependent on property ownership and advantaged life chances\nC. an alignment of classes with shared interests but no state power\nD. a state elite whose members are drawn overwhelmingly from a power bloc\nAnswer:"," a state elite whose members are drawn overwhelmingly from a power bloc"],["Question: One of the ethical problems with covert participant observation is:\nChoices:\nA. not being able to write comprehensive fieldnotes or record conversations\nB. deceiving the respondents as to the reason for your presence\nC. observing people outside of their natural setting\nD. subjecting the participants to physical harm\nAnswer:"," not being able to write comprehensive fieldnotes or record conversations"],["Question: One of the ethical problems with covert participant observation is:\nChoices:\nA. not being able to write comprehensive fieldnotes or record conversations\nB. deceiving the respondents as to the reason for your presence\nC. observing people outside of their natural setting\nD. subjecting the participants to physical harm\nAnswer:"," deceiving the respondents as to the reason for your presence"],["Question: One of the ethical problems with covert participant observation is:\nChoices:\nA. not being able to write comprehensive fieldnotes or record conversations\nB. deceiving the respondents as to the reason for your presence\nC. observing people outside of their natural setting\nD. subjecting the participants to physical harm\nAnswer:"," observing people outside of their natural setting"],["Question: One of the ethical problems with covert participant observation is:\nChoices:\nA. not being able to write comprehensive fieldnotes or record conversations\nB. deceiving the respondents as to the reason for your presence\nC. observing people outside of their natural setting\nD. subjecting the participants to physical harm\nAnswer:"," subjecting the participants to physical harm"],["Question: Telework is a form of employment that involves:\nChoices:\nA. running one's own business through telephone helplines or hotlines\nB. working at home for an outside employer, using information technology\nC. babysitting and other jobs within a local network, through the informal economy\nD. combining non-manual work with the leisure activity of watching television\nAnswer:"," running one's own business through telephone helplines or hotlines"],["Question: Telework is a form of employment that involves:\nChoices:\nA. running one's own business through telephone helplines or hotlines\nB. working at home for an outside employer, using information technology\nC. babysitting and other jobs within a local network, through the informal economy\nD. combining non-manual work with the leisure activity of watching television\nAnswer:"," working at home for an outside employer, using information technology"],["Question: Telework is a form of employment that involves:\nChoices:\nA. running one's own business through telephone helplines or hotlines\nB. working at home for an outside employer, using information technology\nC. babysitting and other jobs within a local network, through the informal economy\nD. combining non-manual work with the leisure activity of watching television\nAnswer:"," babysitting and other jobs within a local network, through the informal economy"],["Question: Telework is a form of employment that involves:\nChoices:\nA. running one's own business through telephone helplines or hotlines\nB. working at home for an outside employer, using information technology\nC. babysitting and other jobs within a local network, through the informal economy\nD. combining non-manual work with the leisure activity of watching television\nAnswer:"," combining non-manual work with the leisure activity of watching television"],["Question: The theory of development which suggests that societies move from traditional to modern, industrial forms of organization is called:\nChoices:\nA. Westernization theory\nB. Modernization theory\nC. Industrialization theory\nD. Dependency theory\nAnswer:"," Westernization theory"],["Question: The theory of development which suggests that societies move from traditional to modern, industrial forms of organization is called:\nChoices:\nA. Westernization theory\nB. Modernization theory\nC. Industrialization theory\nD. Dependency theory\nAnswer:"," Modernization theory"],["Question: The theory of development which suggests that societies move from traditional to modern, industrial forms of organization is called:\nChoices:\nA. Westernization theory\nB. Modernization theory\nC. Industrialization theory\nD. Dependency theory\nAnswer:"," Industrialization theory"],["Question: The theory of development which suggests that societies move from traditional to modern, industrial forms of organization is called:\nChoices:\nA. Westernization theory\nB. Modernization theory\nC. Industrialization theory\nD. Dependency theory\nAnswer:"," Dependency theory"],["Question: In contemporary societies, social institutions are:\nChoices:\nA. highly specialized, interrelated sets of social practices\nB. disorganized social relations in a postmodern world\nC. virtual communities in cyberspace\nD. no longer relevant to sociology\nAnswer:"," highly specialized, interrelated sets of social practices"],["Question: In contemporary societies, social institutions are:\nChoices:\nA. highly specialized, interrelated sets of social practices\nB. disorganized social relations in a postmodern world\nC. virtual communities in cyberspace\nD. no longer relevant to sociology\nAnswer:"," disorganized social relations in a postmodern world"],["Question: In contemporary societies, social institutions are:\nChoices:\nA. highly specialized, interrelated sets of social practices\nB. disorganized social relations in a postmodern world\nC. virtual communities in cyberspace\nD. no longer relevant to sociology\nAnswer:"," virtual communities in cyberspace"],["Question: In contemporary societies, social institutions are:\nChoices:\nA. highly specialized, interrelated sets of social practices\nB. disorganized social relations in a postmodern world\nC. virtual communities in cyberspace\nD. no longer relevant to sociology\nAnswer:"," no longer relevant to sociology"],["Question: Becker proclaimed that cannabis use was:\nChoices:\nA. increasing throughout all sections of youth in the 1970s\nB. learned gradually through the social processes of a deviant career\nC. a dangerous pastime that young people should not be allowed to pursue\nD. not as enjoyable as other sociologists had suggested\nAnswer:"," increasing throughout all sections of youth in the 1970s"],["Question: Becker proclaimed that cannabis use was:\nChoices:\nA. increasing throughout all sections of youth in the 1970s\nB. learned gradually through the social processes of a deviant career\nC. a dangerous pastime that young people should not be allowed to pursue\nD. not as enjoyable as other sociologists had suggested\nAnswer:"," learned gradually through the social processes of a deviant career"],["Question: Becker proclaimed that cannabis use was:\nChoices:\nA. increasing throughout all sections of youth in the 1970s\nB. learned gradually through the social processes of a deviant career\nC. a dangerous pastime that young people should not be allowed to pursue\nD. not as enjoyable as other sociologists had suggested\nAnswer:"," a dangerous pastime that young people should not be allowed to pursue"],["Question: Becker proclaimed that cannabis use was:\nChoices:\nA. increasing throughout all sections of youth in the 1970s\nB. learned gradually through the social processes of a deviant career\nC. a dangerous pastime that young people should not be allowed to pursue\nD. not as enjoyable as other sociologists had suggested\nAnswer:"," not as enjoyable as other sociologists had suggested"],["Question: Judith Butler (1999) suggested that:\nChoices:\nA. sexual characteristics are the biological determinants of gender\nB. heterosexuality and homosexuality are essential, opposing identities\nC. the 'two-sex' model replaced the 'one-sex' model in the eighteenth century\nD. gender is performed through bodily gestures and styles to create 'sex'\nAnswer:"," sexual characteristics are the biological determinants of gender"],["Question: Judith Butler (1999) suggested that:\nChoices:\nA. sexual characteristics are the biological determinants of gender\nB. heterosexuality and homosexuality are essential, opposing identities\nC. the 'two-sex' model replaced the 'one-sex' model in the eighteenth century\nD. gender is performed through bodily gestures and styles to create 'sex'\nAnswer:"," heterosexuality and homosexuality are essential, opposing identities"],["Question: Judith Butler (1999) suggested that:\nChoices:\nA. sexual characteristics are the biological determinants of gender\nB. heterosexuality and homosexuality are essential, opposing identities\nC. the 'two-sex' model replaced the 'one-sex' model in the eighteenth century\nD. gender is performed through bodily gestures and styles to create 'sex'\nAnswer:"," the 'two-sex' model replaced the 'one-sex' model in the eighteenth century"],["Question: Judith Butler (1999) suggested that:\nChoices:\nA. sexual characteristics are the biological determinants of gender\nB. heterosexuality and homosexuality are essential, opposing identities\nC. the 'two-sex' model replaced the 'one-sex' model in the eighteenth century\nD. gender is performed through bodily gestures and styles to create 'sex'\nAnswer:"," gender is performed through bodily gestures and styles to create 'sex'"],["Question: Chodorow (1978) argued that gender socialization occurred through:\nChoices:\nA. both boys and girls being closely attached to their mothers, but then boys breaking away\nB. girls being attached to their mothers but then breaking away\nC. boys being attached to their fathers and girls to their mothers\nD. both boys and girls being closely attached to their fathers, but girls breaking away\nAnswer:"," both boys and girls being closely attached to their mothers, but then boys breaking away"],["Question: Chodorow (1978) argued that gender socialization occurred through:\nChoices:\nA. both boys and girls being closely attached to their mothers, but then boys breaking away\nB. girls being attached to their mothers but then breaking away\nC. boys being attached to their fathers and girls to their mothers\nD. both boys and girls being closely attached to their fathers, but girls breaking away\nAnswer:"," girls being attached to their mothers but then breaking away"],["Question: Chodorow (1978) argued that gender socialization occurred through:\nChoices:\nA. both boys and girls being closely attached to their mothers, but then boys breaking away\nB. girls being attached to their mothers but then breaking away\nC. boys being attached to their fathers and girls to their mothers\nD. both boys and girls being closely attached to their fathers, but girls breaking away\nAnswer:"," boys being attached to their fathers and girls to their mothers"],["Question: Chodorow (1978) argued that gender socialization occurred through:\nChoices:\nA. both boys and girls being closely attached to their mothers, but then boys breaking away\nB. girls being attached to their mothers but then breaking away\nC. boys being attached to their fathers and girls to their mothers\nD. both boys and girls being closely attached to their fathers, but girls breaking away\nAnswer:"," both boys and girls being closely attached to their fathers, but girls breaking away"]]
[["Question: Why might the 'Philadelphian System' be linked to the idea of American exceptionalism?\nChoices:\nA. It encouraged greater involvement in European politics\nB. It was designed as the antithesis of European politics\nC. It created a large standing army\nD. It encouraged the centralization of political power in the US\nAnswer:"," It encouraged greater involvement in European politics"],["Question: Why might the 'Philadelphian System' be linked to the idea of American exceptionalism?\nChoices:\nA. It encouraged greater involvement in European politics\nB. It was designed as the antithesis of European politics\nC. It created a large standing army\nD. It encouraged the centralization of political power in the US\nAnswer:"," It was designed as the antithesis of European politics"],["Question: Why might the 'Philadelphian System' be linked to the idea of American exceptionalism?\nChoices:\nA. It encouraged greater involvement in European politics\nB. It was designed as the antithesis of European politics\nC. It created a large standing army\nD. It encouraged the centralization of political power in the US\nAnswer:"," It created a large standing army"],["Question: Why might the 'Philadelphian System' be linked to the idea of American exceptionalism?\nChoices:\nA. It encouraged greater involvement in European politics\nB. It was designed as the antithesis of European politics\nC. It created a large standing army\nD. It encouraged the centralization of political power in the US\nAnswer:"," It encouraged the centralization of political power in the US"],["Question: Which is NOT a reason for why intergovernmental organizations are ineffective at promoting human rights?\nChoices:\nA. These organizations merely identify those states who already support human rights\nB. They cannot get enough information about which leaders will abuse their citizens\nC. These organizations have little ability to constrain abusive leaders\nD. None of the above\nAnswer:"," These organizations merely identify those states who already support human rights"],["Question: Which is NOT a reason for why intergovernmental organizations are ineffective at promoting human rights?\nChoices:\nA. These organizations merely identify those states who already support human rights\nB. They cannot get enough information about which leaders will abuse their citizens\nC. These organizations have little ability to constrain abusive leaders\nD. None of the above\nAnswer:"," They cannot get enough information about which leaders will abuse their citizens"],["Question: Which is NOT a reason for why intergovernmental organizations are ineffective at promoting human rights?\nChoices:\nA. These organizations merely identify those states who already support human rights\nB. They cannot get enough information about which leaders will abuse their citizens\nC. These organizations have little ability to constrain abusive leaders\nD. None of the above\nAnswer:"," These organizations have little ability to constrain abusive leaders"],["Question: Which is NOT a reason for why intergovernmental organizations are ineffective at promoting human rights?\nChoices:\nA. These organizations merely identify those states who already support human rights\nB. They cannot get enough information about which leaders will abuse their citizens\nC. These organizations have little ability to constrain abusive leaders\nD. None of the above\nAnswer:"," None of the above"],["Question: International development may be tied to the security of the state, why?\nChoices:\nA. Threats to the state centralize political and economic power, threatening state development\nB. Too many casualties drain the productive power of the state\nC. Threats to the state encourage socialism\nD. The two are correlated, but there is no causal effect\nAnswer:"," Threats to the state centralize political and economic power, threatening state development"],["Question: International development may be tied to the security of the state, why?\nChoices:\nA. Threats to the state centralize political and economic power, threatening state development\nB. Too many casualties drain the productive power of the state\nC. Threats to the state encourage socialism\nD. The two are correlated, but there is no causal effect\nAnswer:"," Too many casualties drain the productive power of the state"],["Question: International development may be tied to the security of the state, why?\nChoices:\nA. Threats to the state centralize political and economic power, threatening state development\nB. Too many casualties drain the productive power of the state\nC. Threats to the state encourage socialism\nD. The two are correlated, but there is no causal effect\nAnswer:"," Threats to the state encourage socialism"],["Question: International development may be tied to the security of the state, why?\nChoices:\nA. Threats to the state centralize political and economic power, threatening state development\nB. Too many casualties drain the productive power of the state\nC. Threats to the state encourage socialism\nD. The two are correlated, but there is no causal effect\nAnswer:"," The two are correlated, but there is no causal effect"],["Question: In American government, the power to declare war rests with\nChoices:\nA. the president of the United States.\nB. the secretary of defense.\nC. the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.\nD. Congress.\nAnswer:"," the president of the United States."],["Question: In American government, the power to declare war rests with\nChoices:\nA. the president of the United States.\nB. the secretary of defense.\nC. the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.\nD. Congress.\nAnswer:"," the secretary of defense."],["Question: In American government, the power to declare war rests with\nChoices:\nA. the president of the United States.\nB. the secretary of defense.\nC. the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.\nD. Congress.\nAnswer:"," the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff."],["Question: In American government, the power to declare war rests with\nChoices:\nA. the president of the United States.\nB. the secretary of defense.\nC. the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.\nD. Congress.\nAnswer:"," Congress."],["Question: Why is NSC 68 seen as a turning point in US Cold War Foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It indicated the primacy of economic containment\nB. It indicated a desire to engage with the Soviet Union\nC. It indicated a shift towards military containment\nD. It dispensed with the idea of containment\nAnswer:"," It indicated the primacy of economic containment"],["Question: Why is NSC 68 seen as a turning point in US Cold War Foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It indicated the primacy of economic containment\nB. It indicated a desire to engage with the Soviet Union\nC. It indicated a shift towards military containment\nD. It dispensed with the idea of containment\nAnswer:"," It indicated a desire to engage with the Soviet Union"],["Question: Why is NSC 68 seen as a turning point in US Cold War Foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It indicated the primacy of economic containment\nB. It indicated a desire to engage with the Soviet Union\nC. It indicated a shift towards military containment\nD. It dispensed with the idea of containment\nAnswer:"," It indicated a shift towards military containment"],["Question: Why is NSC 68 seen as a turning point in US Cold War Foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It indicated the primacy of economic containment\nB. It indicated a desire to engage with the Soviet Union\nC. It indicated a shift towards military containment\nD. It dispensed with the idea of containment\nAnswer:"," It dispensed with the idea of containment"],["Question: What caused a public uproar involving the National Security Agency in 2005?\nChoices:\nA. Revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants\nB. A leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001, with the Democratic National Committee\nC. Revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba\nD. A scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for \"building a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundation\"\nAnswer:"," Revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants"],["Question: What caused a public uproar involving the National Security Agency in 2005?\nChoices:\nA. Revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants\nB. A leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001, with the Democratic National Committee\nC. Revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba\nD. A scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for \"building a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundation\"\nAnswer:"," A leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001, with the Democratic National Committee"],["Question: What caused a public uproar involving the National Security Agency in 2005?\nChoices:\nA. Revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants\nB. A leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001, with the Democratic National Committee\nC. Revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba\nD. A scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for \"building a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundation\"\nAnswer:"," Revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba"],["Question: What caused a public uproar involving the National Security Agency in 2005?\nChoices:\nA. Revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants\nB. A leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001, with the Democratic National Committee\nC. Revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba\nD. A scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for \"building a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundation\"\nAnswer:"," A scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for \"building a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundation\""],["Question: What was the significance of the Gulf of Tonkin resolution?\nChoices:\nA. It allowed the US to intensify its involvement in Vietnam\nB. It illustrated the influence of public opinion on US foreign policy\nC. It enhanced Congressional control over the Vietnam War\nD. It curtailed US involvement in Vietnam\nAnswer:"," It allowed the US to intensify its involvement in Vietnam"],["Question: What was the significance of the Gulf of Tonkin resolution?\nChoices:\nA. It allowed the US to intensify its involvement in Vietnam\nB. It illustrated the influence of public opinion on US foreign policy\nC. It enhanced Congressional control over the Vietnam War\nD. It curtailed US involvement in Vietnam\nAnswer:"," It illustrated the influence of public opinion on US foreign policy"],["Question: What was the significance of the Gulf of Tonkin resolution?\nChoices:\nA. It allowed the US to intensify its involvement in Vietnam\nB. It illustrated the influence of public opinion on US foreign policy\nC. It enhanced Congressional control over the Vietnam War\nD. It curtailed US involvement in Vietnam\nAnswer:"," It enhanced Congressional control over the Vietnam War"],["Question: What was the significance of the Gulf of Tonkin resolution?\nChoices:\nA. It allowed the US to intensify its involvement in Vietnam\nB. It illustrated the influence of public opinion on US foreign policy\nC. It enhanced Congressional control over the Vietnam War\nD. It curtailed US involvement in Vietnam\nAnswer:"," It curtailed US involvement in Vietnam"],["Question: Why do realists tend to object to the influence of exceptionalism on American foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It leads to a diminished focus on collective security\nB. It diminishes the prospects for world government\nC. It enhances the prospects for world government\nD. It leads to a diminished focus on security, power and interest\nAnswer:"," It leads to a diminished focus on collective security"],["Question: Why do realists tend to object to the influence of exceptionalism on American foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It leads to a diminished focus on collective security\nB. It diminishes the prospects for world government\nC. It enhances the prospects for world government\nD. It leads to a diminished focus on security, power and interest\nAnswer:"," It diminishes the prospects for world government"],["Question: Why do realists tend to object to the influence of exceptionalism on American foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It leads to a diminished focus on collective security\nB. It diminishes the prospects for world government\nC. It enhances the prospects for world government\nD. It leads to a diminished focus on security, power and interest\nAnswer:"," It enhances the prospects for world government"],["Question: Why do realists tend to object to the influence of exceptionalism on American foreign policy?\nChoices:\nA. It leads to a diminished focus on collective security\nB. It diminishes the prospects for world government\nC. It enhances the prospects for world government\nD. It leads to a diminished focus on security, power and interest\nAnswer:"," It leads to a diminished focus on security, power and interest"],["Question: What did the Moscow Treaty on Strategic Offensive Reductions do?\nChoices:\nA. Required the United States and Russia to demobilize their armies\nB. Required the United States and Russia to dismantle a significant number of their nuclear weapons\nC. Prohibited the acquisition of new military bases\nD. Prohibited short-range nuclear weapons\nAnswer:"," Required the United States and Russia to demobilize their armies"],["Question: What did the Moscow Treaty on Strategic Offensive Reductions do?\nChoices:\nA. Required the United States and Russia to demobilize their armies\nB. Required the United States and Russia to dismantle a significant number of their nuclear weapons\nC. Prohibited the acquisition of new military bases\nD. Prohibited short-range nuclear weapons\nAnswer:"," Required the United States and Russia to dismantle a significant number of their nuclear weapons"],["Question: What did the Moscow Treaty on Strategic Offensive Reductions do?\nChoices:\nA. Required the United States and Russia to demobilize their armies\nB. Required the United States and Russia to dismantle a significant number of their nuclear weapons\nC. Prohibited the acquisition of new military bases\nD. Prohibited short-range nuclear weapons\nAnswer:"," Prohibited the acquisition of new military bases"],["Question: What did the Moscow Treaty on Strategic Offensive Reductions do?\nChoices:\nA. Required the United States and Russia to demobilize their armies\nB. Required the United States and Russia to dismantle a significant number of their nuclear weapons\nC. Prohibited the acquisition of new military bases\nD. Prohibited short-range nuclear weapons\nAnswer:"," Prohibited short-range nuclear weapons"],["Question: What was the Marshall plan?\nChoices:\nA. A plan designed to aid the economy recovery of Europe\nB. An attempt to diminish the potential attraction of the Soviet system to Europeans\nC. An aid programme that embedded US influence in Europe\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," A plan designed to aid the economy recovery of Europe"],["Question: What was the Marshall plan?\nChoices:\nA. A plan designed to aid the economy recovery of Europe\nB. An attempt to diminish the potential attraction of the Soviet system to Europeans\nC. An aid programme that embedded US influence in Europe\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," An attempt to diminish the potential attraction of the Soviet system to Europeans"],["Question: What was the Marshall plan?\nChoices:\nA. A plan designed to aid the economy recovery of Europe\nB. An attempt to diminish the potential attraction of the Soviet system to Europeans\nC. An aid programme that embedded US influence in Europe\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," An aid programme that embedded US influence in Europe"],["Question: What was the Marshall plan?\nChoices:\nA. A plan designed to aid the economy recovery of Europe\nB. An attempt to diminish the potential attraction of the Soviet system to Europeans\nC. An aid programme that embedded US influence in Europe\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," All of the above"]]
[["Question: How are antibody producing cells stimulated?\nChoices:\nA. Interacting with a virus short peptide\nB. Interacting with a T helper cell.\nC. Interacting with a plasma cell\nD. Interacting with a virus infected cell\nAnswer:"," Interacting with a virus short peptide"],["Question: How are antibody producing cells stimulated?\nChoices:\nA. Interacting with a virus short peptide\nB. Interacting with a T helper cell.\nC. Interacting with a plasma cell\nD. Interacting with a virus infected cell\nAnswer:"," Interacting with a T helper cell."],["Question: How are antibody producing cells stimulated?\nChoices:\nA. Interacting with a virus short peptide\nB. Interacting with a T helper cell.\nC. Interacting with a plasma cell\nD. Interacting with a virus infected cell\nAnswer:"," Interacting with a plasma cell"],["Question: How are antibody producing cells stimulated?\nChoices:\nA. Interacting with a virus short peptide\nB. Interacting with a T helper cell.\nC. Interacting with a plasma cell\nD. Interacting with a virus infected cell\nAnswer:"," Interacting with a virus infected cell"],["Question: Of the following factors, which are the most important factors for virus spread and infection?\nChoices:\nA. Age\nB. Sex\nC. Genetic factors\nD. Travel\nAnswer:"," Age"],["Question: Of the following factors, which are the most important factors for virus spread and infection?\nChoices:\nA. Age\nB. Sex\nC. Genetic factors\nD. Travel\nAnswer:"," Sex"],["Question: Of the following factors, which are the most important factors for virus spread and infection?\nChoices:\nA. Age\nB. Sex\nC. Genetic factors\nD. Travel\nAnswer:"," Genetic factors"],["Question: Of the following factors, which are the most important factors for virus spread and infection?\nChoices:\nA. Age\nB. Sex\nC. Genetic factors\nD. Travel\nAnswer:"," Travel"],["Question: Viruses have encouraged us to change our world, as we have now:\nChoices:\nA. Eradicated smallpox\nB. Eradicated polio\nC. Increased hygiene\nD. A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs\nAnswer:"," Eradicated smallpox"],["Question: Viruses have encouraged us to change our world, as we have now:\nChoices:\nA. Eradicated smallpox\nB. Eradicated polio\nC. Increased hygiene\nD. A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs\nAnswer:"," Eradicated polio"],["Question: Viruses have encouraged us to change our world, as we have now:\nChoices:\nA. Eradicated smallpox\nB. Eradicated polio\nC. Increased hygiene\nD. A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs\nAnswer:"," Increased hygiene"],["Question: Viruses have encouraged us to change our world, as we have now:\nChoices:\nA. Eradicated smallpox\nB. Eradicated polio\nC. Increased hygiene\nD. A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs\nAnswer:"," A better understanding of how cellular genes aid virus replication and so become a target for new drugs"],["Question: The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special \"risk\" sectors by:\nChoices:\nA. Hygiene\nB. Vaccination\nC. Antiviral drugs\nD. Humanised monoclonal antibodies\nAnswer:"," Hygiene"],["Question: The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special \"risk\" sectors by:\nChoices:\nA. Hygiene\nB. Vaccination\nC. Antiviral drugs\nD. Humanised monoclonal antibodies\nAnswer:"," Vaccination"],["Question: The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special \"risk\" sectors by:\nChoices:\nA. Hygiene\nB. Vaccination\nC. Antiviral drugs\nD. Humanised monoclonal antibodies\nAnswer:"," Antiviral drugs"],["Question: The influenza virus is mainly controlled in special \"risk\" sectors by:\nChoices:\nA. Hygiene\nB. Vaccination\nC. Antiviral drugs\nD. Humanised monoclonal antibodies\nAnswer:"," Humanised monoclonal antibodies"],["Question: In HIV-associated tuberculosis cases, treatment with antiretrovirals should begin:\nChoices:\nA. Before antiretroviral drugs are started\nB. After antiretroviral drugs are started\nC. Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs\nD. Doesn\u2019t make any difference\nAnswer:"," Before antiretroviral drugs are started"],["Question: In HIV-associated tuberculosis cases, treatment with antiretrovirals should begin:\nChoices:\nA. Before antiretroviral drugs are started\nB. After antiretroviral drugs are started\nC. Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs\nD. Doesn\u2019t make any difference\nAnswer:"," After antiretroviral drugs are started"],["Question: In HIV-associated tuberculosis cases, treatment with antiretrovirals should begin:\nChoices:\nA. Before antiretroviral drugs are started\nB. After antiretroviral drugs are started\nC. Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs\nD. Doesn\u2019t make any difference\nAnswer:"," Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs"],["Question: In HIV-associated tuberculosis cases, treatment with antiretrovirals should begin:\nChoices:\nA. Before antiretroviral drugs are started\nB. After antiretroviral drugs are started\nC. Concurrently with antiretroviral drugs\nD. Doesn\u2019t make any difference\nAnswer:"," Doesn\u2019t make any difference"],["Question: The first acquired immune cell to respond defensively to HIV infection is:\nChoices:\nA. CD4+\nB. CD8+\nC. CD57\nD. NK cells\nAnswer:"," CD4+"],["Question: The first acquired immune cell to respond defensively to HIV infection is:\nChoices:\nA. CD4+\nB. CD8+\nC. CD57\nD. NK cells\nAnswer:"," CD8+"],["Question: The first acquired immune cell to respond defensively to HIV infection is:\nChoices:\nA. CD4+\nB. CD8+\nC. CD57\nD. NK cells\nAnswer:"," CD57"],["Question: The first acquired immune cell to respond defensively to HIV infection is:\nChoices:\nA. CD4+\nB. CD8+\nC. CD57\nD. NK cells\nAnswer:"," NK cells"],["Question: Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?\nChoices:\nA. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA\nB. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA\nC. This genome is circular\nD. Their RNA genome is segmented\nAnswer:"," Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA"],["Question: Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?\nChoices:\nA. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA\nB. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA\nC. This genome is circular\nD. Their RNA genome is segmented\nAnswer:"," They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA"],["Question: Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?\nChoices:\nA. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA\nB. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA\nC. This genome is circular\nD. Their RNA genome is segmented\nAnswer:"," This genome is circular"],["Question: Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics?\nChoices:\nA. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA\nB. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA\nC. This genome is circular\nD. Their RNA genome is segmented\nAnswer:"," Their RNA genome is segmented"],["Question: Which of the following are goals of vaccination?\nChoices:\nA. Prevent infection\nB. Prevent disease\nC. Prevent transmission\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," Prevent infection"],["Question: Which of the following are goals of vaccination?\nChoices:\nA. Prevent infection\nB. Prevent disease\nC. Prevent transmission\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," Prevent disease"],["Question: Which of the following are goals of vaccination?\nChoices:\nA. Prevent infection\nB. Prevent disease\nC. Prevent transmission\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," Prevent transmission"],["Question: Which of the following are goals of vaccination?\nChoices:\nA. Prevent infection\nB. Prevent disease\nC. Prevent transmission\nD. All of the above\nAnswer:"," All of the above"],["Question: What disease do herpes viruses not cause?\nChoices:\nA. Infantile paralysis\nB. Encephalitis\nC. Sexually transmitted disease\nD. Cancer\nAnswer:"," Infantile paralysis"],["Question: What disease do herpes viruses not cause?\nChoices:\nA. Infantile paralysis\nB. Encephalitis\nC. Sexually transmitted disease\nD. Cancer\nAnswer:"," Encephalitis"],["Question: What disease do herpes viruses not cause?\nChoices:\nA. Infantile paralysis\nB. Encephalitis\nC. Sexually transmitted disease\nD. Cancer\nAnswer:"," Sexually transmitted disease"],["Question: What disease do herpes viruses not cause?\nChoices:\nA. Infantile paralysis\nB. Encephalitis\nC. Sexually transmitted disease\nD. Cancer\nAnswer:"," Cancer"],["Question: Which of the following is a special feature of the rabies vaccine?\nChoices:\nA. The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur\nB. The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine\nC. The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity\nD. The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo\nAnswer:"," The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur"],["Question: Which of the following is a special feature of the rabies vaccine?\nChoices:\nA. The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur\nB. The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine\nC. The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity\nD. The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo\nAnswer:"," The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine"],["Question: Which of the following is a special feature of the rabies vaccine?\nChoices:\nA. The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur\nB. The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine\nC. The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity\nD. The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo\nAnswer:"," The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity"],["Question: Which of the following is a special feature of the rabies vaccine?\nChoices:\nA. The vaccine has not changed since the time of L. Pasteur\nB. The original air dried spinal cord of infected rabbits was a killed vaccine\nC. The vaccine still needs 16 doses given into the peritoneal cavity\nD. The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo\nAnswer:"," The modern rabies vaccine is grown in human diploid cells from an aborted embryo"]]
[["Question: Rome claimed that their bishop (pope) was the director successor of which leader?\nChoices:\nA. Peter\nB. Paul\nC. Jesus\nD. Matthew\nAnswer:"," Peter"],["Question: Rome claimed that their bishop (pope) was the director successor of which leader?\nChoices:\nA. Peter\nB. Paul\nC. Jesus\nD. Matthew\nAnswer:"," Paul"],["Question: Rome claimed that their bishop (pope) was the director successor of which leader?\nChoices:\nA. Peter\nB. Paul\nC. Jesus\nD. Matthew\nAnswer:"," Jesus"],["Question: Rome claimed that their bishop (pope) was the director successor of which leader?\nChoices:\nA. Peter\nB. Paul\nC. Jesus\nD. Matthew\nAnswer:"," Matthew"],["Question: Which are the synoptic Gospels?\nChoices:\nA. Peter, John, Mark\nB. Matthew, Mark, John\nC. Matthew, Mark, Luke\nD. John, Luke, Mark\nAnswer:"," Peter, John, Mark"],["Question: Which are the synoptic Gospels?\nChoices:\nA. Peter, John, Mark\nB. Matthew, Mark, John\nC. Matthew, Mark, Luke\nD. John, Luke, Mark\nAnswer:"," Matthew, Mark, John"],["Question: Which are the synoptic Gospels?\nChoices:\nA. Peter, John, Mark\nB. Matthew, Mark, John\nC. Matthew, Mark, Luke\nD. John, Luke, Mark\nAnswer:"," Matthew, Mark, Luke"],["Question: Which are the synoptic Gospels?\nChoices:\nA. Peter, John, Mark\nB. Matthew, Mark, John\nC. Matthew, Mark, Luke\nD. John, Luke, Mark\nAnswer:"," John, Luke, Mark"],["Question: Which Jaina group only allows women to lead a life of semi-renunciation?\nChoices:\nA. Svetambara\nB. Jina\nC. Agama\nD. Digambara\nAnswer:"," Svetambara"],["Question: Which Jaina group only allows women to lead a life of semi-renunciation?\nChoices:\nA. Svetambara\nB. Jina\nC. Agama\nD. Digambara\nAnswer:"," Jina"],["Question: Which Jaina group only allows women to lead a life of semi-renunciation?\nChoices:\nA. Svetambara\nB. Jina\nC. Agama\nD. Digambara\nAnswer:"," Agama"],["Question: Which Jaina group only allows women to lead a life of semi-renunciation?\nChoices:\nA. Svetambara\nB. Jina\nC. Agama\nD. Digambara\nAnswer:"," Digambara"],["Question: What is the English title for the divination text also known as the Yijing?\nChoices:\nA. The Classic of Documents\nB. The Lotus Sutra\nC. The Flower Garland Sutra\nD. The Classic of Changes\nAnswer:"," The Classic of Documents"],["Question: What is the English title for the divination text also known as the Yijing?\nChoices:\nA. The Classic of Documents\nB. The Lotus Sutra\nC. The Flower Garland Sutra\nD. The Classic of Changes\nAnswer:"," The Lotus Sutra"],["Question: What is the English title for the divination text also known as the Yijing?\nChoices:\nA. The Classic of Documents\nB. The Lotus Sutra\nC. The Flower Garland Sutra\nD. The Classic of Changes\nAnswer:"," The Flower Garland Sutra"],["Question: What is the English title for the divination text also known as the Yijing?\nChoices:\nA. The Classic of Documents\nB. The Lotus Sutra\nC. The Flower Garland Sutra\nD. The Classic of Changes\nAnswer:"," The Classic of Changes"],["Question: In Jainism, what is the cycle that one must liberate oneself from?\nChoices:\nA. Punya\nB. Samsara\nC. Samayika\nD. Jiva\nAnswer:"," Punya"],["Question: In Jainism, what is the cycle that one must liberate oneself from?\nChoices:\nA. Punya\nB. Samsara\nC. Samayika\nD. Jiva\nAnswer:"," Samsara"],["Question: In Jainism, what is the cycle that one must liberate oneself from?\nChoices:\nA. Punya\nB. Samsara\nC. Samayika\nD. Jiva\nAnswer:"," Samayika"],["Question: In Jainism, what is the cycle that one must liberate oneself from?\nChoices:\nA. Punya\nB. Samsara\nC. Samayika\nD. Jiva\nAnswer:"," Jiva"],["Question: What is the most important prayer in Judaism?\nChoices:\nA. The Shema\nB. The Sefirot\nC. Deuteronomy\nD. The Decalogue\nAnswer:"," The Shema"],["Question: What is the most important prayer in Judaism?\nChoices:\nA. The Shema\nB. The Sefirot\nC. Deuteronomy\nD. The Decalogue\nAnswer:"," The Sefirot"],["Question: What is the most important prayer in Judaism?\nChoices:\nA. The Shema\nB. The Sefirot\nC. Deuteronomy\nD. The Decalogue\nAnswer:"," Deuteronomy"],["Question: What is the most important prayer in Judaism?\nChoices:\nA. The Shema\nB. The Sefirot\nC. Deuteronomy\nD. The Decalogue\nAnswer:"," The Decalogue"],["Question: What is a mohel?\nChoices:\nA. A ritual circumciser\nB. A type of oil lame\nC. A teacher\nD. A covenant\nAnswer:"," A ritual circumciser"],["Question: What is a mohel?\nChoices:\nA. A ritual circumciser\nB. A type of oil lame\nC. A teacher\nD. A covenant\nAnswer:"," A type of oil lame"],["Question: What is a mohel?\nChoices:\nA. A ritual circumciser\nB. A type of oil lame\nC. A teacher\nD. A covenant\nAnswer:"," A teacher"],["Question: What is a mohel?\nChoices:\nA. A ritual circumciser\nB. A type of oil lame\nC. A teacher\nD. A covenant\nAnswer:"," A covenant"],["Question: Who is the eighth-century CE female poet worshipped throughout many South Indian temples dedicated to Vishnu?\nChoices:\nA. Andal\nB. Devi\nC. Ganga\nD. Kali\nAnswer:"," Andal"],["Question: Who is the eighth-century CE female poet worshipped throughout many South Indian temples dedicated to Vishnu?\nChoices:\nA. Andal\nB. Devi\nC. Ganga\nD. Kali\nAnswer:"," Devi"],["Question: Who is the eighth-century CE female poet worshipped throughout many South Indian temples dedicated to Vishnu?\nChoices:\nA. Andal\nB. Devi\nC. Ganga\nD. Kali\nAnswer:"," Ganga"],["Question: Who is the eighth-century CE female poet worshipped throughout many South Indian temples dedicated to Vishnu?\nChoices:\nA. Andal\nB. Devi\nC. Ganga\nD. Kali\nAnswer:"," Kali"],["Question: The classic text Daodejing is known by what title in English?\nChoices:\nA. Classic of Changes\nB. Classic of the Way and Power\nC. Classic of Women\nD. Classic of Philosophy\nAnswer:"," Classic of Changes"],["Question: The classic text Daodejing is known by what title in English?\nChoices:\nA. Classic of Changes\nB. Classic of the Way and Power\nC. Classic of Women\nD. Classic of Philosophy\nAnswer:"," Classic of the Way and Power"],["Question: The classic text Daodejing is known by what title in English?\nChoices:\nA. Classic of Changes\nB. Classic of the Way and Power\nC. Classic of Women\nD. Classic of Philosophy\nAnswer:"," Classic of Women"],["Question: The classic text Daodejing is known by what title in English?\nChoices:\nA. Classic of Changes\nB. Classic of the Way and Power\nC. Classic of Women\nD. Classic of Philosophy\nAnswer:"," Classic of Philosophy"],["Question: What is bhakti often translated as?\nChoices:\nA. Gods\nB. Yoga\nC. Devotion\nD. Religion\nAnswer:"," Gods"],["Question: What is bhakti often translated as?\nChoices:\nA. Gods\nB. Yoga\nC. Devotion\nD. Religion\nAnswer:"," Yoga"],["Question: What is bhakti often translated as?\nChoices:\nA. Gods\nB. Yoga\nC. Devotion\nD. Religion\nAnswer:"," Devotion"],["Question: What is bhakti often translated as?\nChoices:\nA. Gods\nB. Yoga\nC. Devotion\nD. Religion\nAnswer:"," Religion"]]
